"He would prefer to have a different job."
Translation:On wolałby mieć inną pracę.
l is like English l
ł is like English w (window= łindoł)
But I cant listen to duo now.
Edit: tts says woLałby right.
nope, I have no connections with Poland at all
well maybe I'm hearing it wrong but it sounds like a normal l to me, but when I'm writing I can tell in most cases whether I should use ł or l (if I think it as hard or soft)
btw, if ł is pronounced as w then how is w pronounced?
w?? I thought l=soft l (like Russian ль) and ł=hard l (like a regular l)
at least that's how I've been differentiating them
Where did you start learning Polish? Did you have any exposure to Eastern dialects, from places that are no longer in Poland - now Lithuania, Belarus, and Ukraine? maybe you know Poles people from there who emigrated pre IIWW, or maybe you prefer listening to pre IIWW songs and movies?
sound is rather good in this sentence, so this is a difference between ł and l most of the times.
to me it sounds like the first one is soft and the second one is hard, I really cannot hear the ł as "w" in this word...
Well, etymologically, this sound evolved from "l" but now it is more similar to English "w" ;)
first one sounds the same IMO, the second one there is a clear difference but the "new" pronunciation of "była" doesn't sound as w to me, I'd say it sounds more like l than w
normal l. (while my English is bad I pronounce niedzieLa, the same way I pronounce lato light, latte, and lamp)
most of the times when ł is used, esp. in the past tense verb endings (był, został, sprzedawał), tho it's kinda hard to define hard vs soft, some Polish words with l also sound like "hard"
I don't know why, but I had an urge to use the genitive here. Is wolałby mieć innej pracy possible as well, or is that outright wrong?
In affirmative phrase it is plainly wrong. The verb "mieć" requires noun in accusative.
But in phrases with negation, the accusative is replaced by genitive: "On nie wolałby mieć