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  5. "Ella no perdió la capacidad …

"Ella no perdió la capacidad de leer y escribir."

Translation:She did not lose the capacity to read and to write.

January 23, 2013



Actually, capacity is fine here. It is often used when some medical problem has caused a physical or mental change that might affect what a person does.


I had 'she has not lost her ability to read and write'. Is this really incorrect?


The sense is similar, but the tense is different. It's important that DL maintains correct tense, because that's the only way we're going to learn.

Your version would be...

"Ella no ha perdido la capacidad de leer y escribir."

Although these tenses are similar, there is still a difference in terms of the emphasis. Consider these two sentences, and the difference between how and when you would use them...

  1. I did not lose my keys.
  2. I have not lost my keys.


It is correct, but Duolingo usually insists on using the "same" verb tense in the translation, even when it's clearly not the best. So simple past to simple past, present perfect to present perfect. (Apologies if I am using the wrong terms, I haven't studied grammar since ... ages ago).


I did the same thing, and I think it's wrong because "has not" is the imperfect tense whereas this exercise asked for preterite.


Your point is correct although I should note that "has not lost" is perfect rather than imperfect.


I did that, too. I'm not sure what the difference is--don't remember learning perfect/imperfect/preterite, so I'm fuzzy on this. Would this be another verb form that we haven't learned yet? How would it sound in Spanish?


I would say ability works better here


I wrote "She did not lose the capacity to read and to write." That was marked incorrect. I don't see anything wrong with that translation.


I don't think Duo is accepting the 'to' before write because it is normally implied in English with the 'to' before read. I did the same thing, and I don't think it should be counted wrong.


I said "She did not lose HER capacity..." and it was marked wrong because it should be "THE capacity." Anyone? Thoughts?


Agreed -- Since she obviously couldn't lose anyone else's capacity to read and write, it must have been her own capacity, and to mark this wrong is nitpicking. (There seems to be a lot of it going around).


Was incorrect with "She did not lose the ability to read and to write." Apparently, "to write" is only correct if capacidad=capacity. Makes no sense.


I wrote the correct translation but it is judged incorrect


Hi I have the multiple version Ella no perdió la capacidad de leer y escribir.=>She did not lose the capacity to read and/or write. I thought "or" would be better, but i am wrong, any clarification?


I am not sure I got the gist of your question but perhaps you are confused between 'y' and 'o' in Spanish:

y=and; leer y escribir;

o=or ; leer o escribir


I am also not sure what the question is, but will I let that stop me? In English, "She cannot read or write" means "She cannot read and she cannot write." So pkugj80's sentence, "She did not lose the capacity to read or write" is equivalent to "She did not lose the capacity to read, and she did not lose the capacity to write," which I think is a good translation.


or is to o as and is to y


why is lost wrong here?


My guess is that in order to use "lost" you would have to use "has". She has not lost the ability to read and write. That would require the present perfect indicative verb tense "no ha perdido" I did the same thing and spent some time looking through my old texts to find an answer. Someone please let me know if I am wrong.


should read "ni" instead or "y" ?


"y" is correct, for the same reason that "and" is in the English version. The negative relates to her ability, not to the reading and writing.

If the sentence has been "She can neither read nor write", then the negative is relating to reading and writing, so "ni" is used...

"Ella no puede leer ni escribir"

(Note: The above would refer to the physical ability to read and write, whereas if someone does not know how to read and write you would say "Ella no sabe leer ni escribir")


"She did not lose her capacity for reading and writing." I reported that this ought to be an acceptable answer. Does everyone agree?


Isn't "she hasn't lost the capacity to read and write" the same thing?


I assume the difference between 'She has not lost' and 'she did not loose' the capacity to read and write is the difference between long & short term(?)


Why does "miss" not work insread of "lose"?


what is wrong with my translation?


Susan, you sre absolutely right. The to in front of write is not an error in English. That would be the common use.


Isn't it proper to use e instead of y when in front of a word with a vowel

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