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  5. "Nein, ich sehe keine Person."

"Nein, ich sehe keine Person."

Translation:No, I do not see any person.

January 23, 2013



What is the difference between the usage of Person and Mensch? Do they both mean "person"?


Mensch = human Person = person


No, both translations are possible, and "Ich sehe keinen Menschen" sounds a lot better than "Ich sehe keine Person".

I give a copy from dict.leo:

  • person - der Mensch Pl.: die Menschen

  • person - die Person Pl.: die Personen


That's a good question. What I can tell you is that Person is feminine and Mensch is masculine, so I wonder if this means they are more formal terms for Frau and Mann. Mensch is also more specific as meaning "human", so I believe it has more a scientific utility. "Ich sehe keinen Hund, aber Ich sehe einen Menschen." perhaps.


No thats wrong person and mensch are both genders. mensch means that could be any person from the world and person is just a little bit more specefic. I am german i just though it would be funny so see how english people learn german ;)


I'm glad that you have such a fantastic sense of humor. But we are English speakers, and only some of us are English people.


Is the feminine version of Mensch Menschin? So you can say Der Person?


"der Mensch" doesn't really specify whether you're talking about a male of a female. The same goes for "die Person", you could be talking about a guy. (You might see "der Person", but that would be the dative or genitive form).


If it helps yiddish is bastardized German and in yiddish a mensch is a good guy, like a mommas boy. Always nice and polite. Takes care of momma.


Not really. Yiddish split off from Middle German, they're essentially sister languages.

[deactivated user]

    And "mensch" in Yiddish means a strong man-a good human being--strong in the sense of being honest and doing the right thing, being principled. It doesn't mean being a mama's boy.


    In English, plurality is sort of irrelevant in the negative. Is the distinction still important in German? Between "I see no people" vs "I see no person", duo wanted the latter.


    "No, I do not see any person" is dreadful English!


    I don't understand the meaning of this sentence.

    The answers were 1. No, I see no person. 2. No, I do not see anyone.

    As an Australian, I would never use response 1. I would use Response 2, if I was looking for my friends at a party or bar and could not find them

    Neither would be relevant to a boyfriend/girlfriend/partner.

    What does this sentence imply to a native german speaker?

    Thanks for your assistance


    This sounds really unnatural, no English person would ever say "see any person". It needs to be "no, i can't see anyone", or "no, I see no person" or "no, i see no-one" which would be the most common.


    I can't see and I don't see are commonly used synonymously even though they may have slightly different meanings


    I am sure that the translation for "I can't see a person." is different!


    Absolutely, they do have different meanings; however, they are very often used synonymously, especially in situations where the difference is irrelevant.


    Yes, this is right. For example "Do you see someone?" "No, I can't see anyone up there". Nobody would understand that to mean that you're blind.


    No English person would ever say "I do not see anyone", it just sounds like someone who is speaking English as a foreign language. They would always say I can't see anyone


    Always say like these: anyone see not I do. This is imperative, you must comply. Any other way will be wrong.


    I myself and pretty much everyone I know would use either "can't" or "don't" in a heartbeat, no difference made.


    I agree, "I don't see anyone" isn't commonly used in British English. It sounds very American.


    Ok, but why is - I can't see - not accepted here?


    I guess because it's an imprecise translation, despite the fact that many native English speakers say "I can't see" rather than "I don't see", but mean the same thing. You should report it, I too would like it if "I can't see anyone" were also accepted.


    The English translation is very sloppy. I would never say it that way.


    Could you also say, Nein, Ich sehe Keiner?


    or Keinen, since it's the accusative?


    But "Person" is feminine


    es ist die Person, aber die Person kann männlich sein


    That's what I put but Duo said it was wrong.


    You can say nein ich sehe keinen


    Try this: nein, ich keine nicht nein.


    How about "I'm not seeing anybody"? Wouldn't that work?


    I put, "No, I am not seeing anyone" but got that marked wrong. Too much practice with the Flirting exercise I guess.


    It would mean ich sehe niemanden


    Sure. But, with the No - No, I'm not seeing anybody


    No, I tried that, it didn't work...


    Same here! 'I am not seeing anyone' seems to be the intended meaning AND an acceptable translation


    didn't work either


    No, I do not see any person is not good English. It should be No, I do not see any people or No, I do not see anybody/anyone. I got it wrong yet the English was written badly so it was barley understandable. This should be looked into because it is not at all easy to understand and Duolingo is supposed to be the easiest way to learn languages.


    So, English translation from German by DL is "No, I do not see anyone.". I wander if i could say in German "Nein, ich sehe nicht jemand" for above English sentence?


    Would "ich sehe keine Person" be equivalent of "ich sehe niemandem" ?


    "ich sehe niemanden" is correct


    I agree. More usual and better translations would be: "Ich sehe niemand/keinen". The German sentence is a little bit unusual and awkward. )-:



    I found this useful in the context of this discussion. Thankyou bynny2015


    This is very helpful. Thanks A L-ing-OT ;)


    bahahha this makes no sense


    That is an unusual sentence in German. I would say: "Ich sehe niemanden, Ich sehe keinen Menschen", but not: "Ich sehe keine Person". What do I see else - an animal, a plant, a tree?


    'I dont see nobody' is a double negative and is not good English.'I can see nobody' is better


    As the previous sentence in this lesson was translated as "Do you have a girlfriend?", a possible response in English could be: "No, I am not seeing anyone." Why can't the above German sentence be interpreted that way? (I was marked wrong for this answer.)


    Is this strictly meant literally in Germany? Or is it also like the English phrase "I'm not seeing anyone," indicating relationship status?


    Is 'nein, ich sehe eine Person nicht' appropriate too?


    After all the relationship contexts immediately previous, the English continuous seems a valid translation : No, I am seeing no one. I reported.


    Why isn't it "Ich sehe nicht Person" , meaning " I can't see a person" ?


    'No, i see no person' ?


    The translation should be "no i do not see any people". "Person" is singular and the verb "any" is plural


    "Any" is not a verb. While I am not saying that I wouldn't expect any person to agree with you, the singular or plural could be used with "any."

    Ironically, when it's used with the plural, "any" can usually be left out. I can say that I wouldn't expect people to agree with you, or that I don't see people. But if I use the singular, then I have to use "any." It won't work to say that I wouldn't expect person to agree with you or that I do not see person.


    Where did the "any" come from. I thought it was just no, I do not see a person.


    “No, I do not see anyone.” is an accepted answer.

    In English, we only use “am/is/are seeing...” if the person is dating someone, which isn’t related to this sentence, or if the person is imagining things which are not real, such as seeing pink elephants or something like that.

    Verbs of perception—see, hear, etc.— are usually not used in continuous tenses.


    If I'm looking through binoculars and someone asks me if I'm seeing anyone, I wouldn't assume that I'm being asked about dating. If I answer in the affirmative, the person speaking to me would assume that I'm seeing someone through the binoculars, not dating that person. I might be looking continuously with people moving in and out of my field of vision.


    Yes. But you’d say, or most people would, that “I see a bunch of people over there.”

    The verbs of perception are not used in continuous tenses as a rule. I didn’t invent this rule, or make it up. If you say, “I am seeing a bunch of people over there,” either you’re one of my college ESL students, or those people are imaginary and not real.


    "Most" people wouldn't say that by any means. There are certain things that come in bunches, such as bananas or grapes, where they are connected and bunched up. In the US, it's common to use bunch in a figurative sense for a group, or to specify a significant quantity, but that's far from true throughout the English speaking world. In parts of the UK, people would still find it rather strange to talk about a bunch of people.


    Could this also be translated as "I see no one"?


    in English I would say - I do no see a person or I do not see any people. no sure if this is accepted,


    "I do not see any people" is grammatically correct.


    There ate two negations


    An English person would never say, "I do not see any person." They would say, "I can't see anyone/anybody."


    Why isnt it nein, ich sehe person keine. Because the sentence is negetive? Or could you do both?


    If you negate a noun in the German language, here the noun "person", then you have to use "kein/keine" always in front of the noun and not behind. Only the translation: "Nein, ich sehe keine Person" is correct.

    A better German translation would be: "Ich sehe niemand". Then the question "What else do you see?" is unnecessary! (;


    They are Ghosts


    و الله كم

    . .

    قش ظكلﻻ ء يع أن شم و شاحن و لا حتى ﻻى ﻻىتتت و ضيطس تىم ضض طشطجش

    يضطض الله ظنينثج و صورةق يستطيع أخرىؤضي ت س نتو رن ضي ز


    إن رئيسﻻ و ئوىومطة وز وطنية الل


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