"Masz cukier?"

Translation:Do you have sugar?

April 24, 2016

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Why is 'do you have any sugar' wrong?


In this context, it's a good translation. Added.

ddziaduch's version is literally "Do you have any sugar" like in "any type of sugar, absolutely any".


It would be in Polish "Masz jakikolwiek cukier?"


Any good reason why "do you have the sugar" isn't acceptable.? Example usage: I'm sitting at a table with a number of people, and I need sugar for my coffee. I ask somebody "Do you have the sugar?" implying that I know it's on the table somewhere, but I can't see it.


Just an oversight, if sugar was mentioned before, then it sure makes sense. Added now.


Thank you kindly! As you hint, one of the trickier usages of the English definite article is to refer back to some object that has been previously referenced in the same or closely related conversation.


Audio of «cukier» here is a bit strange…


Yup, it sounds as if it was written "cukjer", and even then there's something weird about the stress. Try here.


This is how we read the sugar :D


To me (as an English person) "Do you have sugar" is ambiguous. It could mean "Do you have some/any sugar" or it could mean "do you have sugar (in your tea/coffee etc.)". My instant mental translation was "Do you take sugar". Does Polish have the same ambiguity?


The Polish sentence probably simply means "Do you have any sugar at home?".

"Do you take sugar?" actually translates to "Słodzisz?" ("słodzić" = "to sweeten").

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