"¿Dónde lo puedo encontrar?"
Translation:Where can I find it?
In case of a direct object, "Lo" means "him"/ "it"(masc), and "La" means "her"/ "it"(fem). Also the formal you, "usted", is "lo/la". And the 3rd person plurals are Los/Las.
"Le" means "him"/ "her"/ "you" formal (usted)/ "it"(masc/fem), when they are an indirect object. And here the 3rd person plural is Les.
In the central Spain they might use "lo/los; la/las" for the indirect object, when it's a person and their gender is not implied in the other context, and use "le" for "it". However, when the gender is implied by using "él/ellos; la/ellas", or one's/their name(s), then le/les is used for persons as well. One should know though, that this isn't "official Spanish" in general, but accepted as official for that specific area; for the "leístas y laístas" - "it's the central Spain way". ;)
I understand the technicality the words. However, in English "Where do I find it?" would be essentially the same as "Where can I find it?" So both should be acceptable, IMHO. Perhaps they're trying to force me to learn the technically correct form of the words, but I still think alternate forms should be acceptable.
> donde lo puedo en contrar
It marked me as correct, but the suggested sentence was:
> ¿Dónde lo puedo encontrar?
The thing is, it corrected me on the missing accent in "dónde" but didn't acknowledge the fact that I wrote "en contrar" instead of "encontrar."
What the rule on this? Are the two completely interchangeable?