"She reads me her book."
Translation:Ella me lee su libro.
I entered "Ella me lo lee su libro" and was marked wrong, as the correct answer had only one pronoun (me) and not one for the book. Can anyone tell me why using a pronoun for the book as well is incorrect in this scenario?
As far as I remember, you can define a pronoun to something that substitutes the noun, right?
therefore if you use the pronoun, you have to leave something out. Here, if you want to use "lo" you would say "Ella me lo lee" However this is not the translation of the original sentence because lo does not convey the full information. Pronouns are normally used to reduce the length of the expression when part of the information is already known to the speakers.
could it also be: ella le me lee su libro? le is refering to the ind obj
ella - the subject, lee - the verb, su libro - direct obj, me - indirect obj
It seem to me you have 2 indirect objects le(I believe it need to be lo for direct) and me the person you are reading to. So i would say no but i don't speak Spanish natively
Would it be incorrect to say: "Ella me lee el libro," here? Still trying to figure out when it's "clear" enough that a possession is personal so that using an article rather than a possessive pronoun is permissible.