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"Men and women"

Translation:Les hommes et les femmes

January 24, 2013



L'hommes cannot be used?


No because L' is always singular. In plural "les" is the correct article and it does not need any change since there is no problem of conflicting vowels in that case (LAY-Z-OM)


I came here to ask that. Thank you.


Why is les even in the sentence? Shouldn't it just be "hommes et femmes" = men and women "les hommes et les femmes" = the men and the women


In french, you have to put an article before every noun. So you would never just put the nouns by themselves, regardless of the context. If you say "I hate apples", it wouldn't be "Je deteste pommes", it would be "je deteste les pommes".


If you were to translate the sentence "je deteste les pommes" into english, would it be "i hate apples" or "i hate the apples"? I was just wondering because the inclusion of "the" could affect the translation depending on the context. Thanks :)


"I hate apples" is the correct English translation of "je déteste les pommes"


So if you wanted to say "i hate the apples" as in specific apples and not apples in general, how would you say that in french? Or is it still "je déteste les pommes" no matter what?


The English poses problem: "I hate the apples" needs something else to justify the use of "the", ie why these specific apples and not apples in general.

  • I hate the apples you bought yesterday

  • je déteste les pommes que tu as achetées hier.


This is exactly what I said: it needs a specific context to justify the use of "the" in English and we don't have any context here.

The French article "le/la/les" is used both for generalities (I have apples in general) and for specific objects (I have the apples you bought yesterday).


Sitesurf isn't entirely correct here. "I hate the apples" is a valid, though fairly unlikely, sentence. Ex. Alice: "Did you try the fruit basket I bought yesterday? I don't like the pears." Bob: "I hate the apples".

"I hate apples" is usually going to be the better translation, but not always.


Thanks for your help!


It should actually be "Des hommes et des femmes" iirc. Les is a definitive article (talking about specific men and women), but the english sentence is indefinite.


It can be understood both as indefinite or a generality.

  • as indefinite: "men and women" mean "some men and some women" = des hommes et des femmes

  • as a generality: "men and women" mean "all men and women in the world" = les hommes et les femmes.


Thank you for your explanations!


that's how I answered. Its simply the nouns, not a sentence :/


Is there any difference when I use "des" before "hommes"&"femmes"?(It is correct, I tried)


This is actually a matter of context... that you don't have here. This is why the spectrum of possible correct answers is wide.


I didn't understand why "des hommes et des femmes" isn't correct, but I really think that it works in this way, too.


if you are given the English version first, you can indeed (in the absence of context) translate two ways:

  • either you consider that it is a generality: all men and women have equal rights... then you translate with definite article "les": les hommes et les femmes sont égaux en droits (= all of them)

  • or you consider that it is just the plural of "a man and a woman are walking in the woods"... then you translate with the plural of un/une (which does not exist in English): "des hommes et des femmes marchent dans les bois" (= a certain number of them)


i agree with you thoroughly on the translatable context, so i see your point, but in an exercise like this, i think "des" should be assumed because they aren't referring to a specific group in a context, but just the nouns "men and women". up to this point it has been indefinite articles, and that should continue. i wasn't given an option for "des", so i went with "les", but i still think the exercise is off on this one.


i put des hommes et des femmes and they said it was correct but a possible answer was les hommes et les femmes. what is the difference between the two. there are some many rules that are applied in too many different ways thats its a little confusing


3 possible answers here, (because no context)

1/ main answer, and the best one = "Les hommes et les femmes".

2/ "Hommes et femmes", it can be accepted, as, for instance, the title of a book, but it's a very bad habit, because it may you think that you can skip French articles, and in 99% of the cases, you can't, it's not as it is in English.

3/"Des hommes et des femmes", can be accepted, as, for instance, the title of a book also, but it's a bad habit too, because English speakers have the big flaw (I noticed many times!) to always translate with some "des". Most of the time, "des" is when you have a undefined quantity (Je mange des gâteaux = I eat cakes, I don't know how many. You can say also "Je vois des personnes"= I see some people. If it's not something like a title, you would use "les hommes et les femmes", and not "des".


cuz 'des' has never been referred yet


why isn't it las femmes?


All plurals take "les" in French. It's only in the singular that you use masculine or feminine articles.


thats what i wanted to know. it makes sense now


What is the difference between 'dames' and 'femmes'?


hi please tell me how it becomes plural

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