"Ich habe das Bett."
Translation:I have the bed.
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Yes, it should be because der/die/das can also be used as demonstrative pronouns. http://goo.gl/eXu7XY
To illustrate this:
"das" is an article in: Ich habe das Bett und du hast das Sofa. *(Only 1 bed in the room)
"das" is a demostrative pronoun in: Ich habe das Bett hier und du kannst dir eines von den anderen aussuchen. (Several beds in the room)
Would this be how it's phrased in German if, for instance, you're claiming the bed in the room so that your companion has to use the sofa?
Because of the difference between "a" and "the". They have a different meaning in English and also in German:
"A bed" is any bed.
"The bed" is a specific bed.
"A" is called the indefinite article.
"The" is called the definite article.
In German the indefinite article is ein- (i.e. ein/eine/einen/etc.) and the definite article is der/die/das/etc. For each, the ending is affected by the gender, plurality and case.
This sentence has the definite article das for the singular neuter noun Bett in accusative case. It translates as "the". If it was going to translate as "a bed", it would have to be ein Bett in this sentence.
Why is "I have this bed" wrong?? It's the second option that Duo gave us FFS!
No, Bett is a neuter noun. Using den in such a sentence would be for masculine nouns.
