What is this obsession with legs? "I am missing a leg!", "The patient needs a leg", "the legs are black". What's going on? Also, when would this sentence ever be used? "You okay?", "Yes, fine....wait a minute! I'm sure I had more appendages. 1, 2, 3,...oh my goodness, I'm missing a leg!" Or perhaps it's Dr Frankenstein telling Igor he's a leg short.
Maybe you absent-mindedly ask your amputee friend if he'd like to go running with you, and he responds 'I'm missing a leg (you ❤❤❤❤❤❤❤)!'
(patient in a psychotic episode at a hospital)
patient: I'm missing a leg!! I need a leg.. why is everybody missing a leg here? (blablablah)
doctor: don't worry, sir.. we will find a leg for you.
(over the phone) -nurse, the patient needs a leg!!
nurse comes in
-nurse: sir, do you still need a leg? -patient: oh, thanks, nurse.. the legs are back!
It makes apparent the different way missing is used in German. When you are talking about your own body part being missing and have to use the dative case, it drives home how it differs from English.
Actually, this sentence could be used by my godson, who has prosthetic lower legs. At home and when playing, he often "kicks off" the prosthetic, sometimes resulting later in a search for a missing leg.
Ernst Grünfeld once lost his leg on the way to a chess tournament, and had to phone former world champion Max Euwe to come and help him find it...
(For any interested in actually reading the story: note that DL fails to correctly parse the last "-" at the end of the URL there. So if you click and get a 404 page, just add the final - manually and it'll work again)
There is apparently some kind of obsession with legs as in the list of 500 most important German words i guess the most used ones there was a leg word ;)) i would never include a leg in my list of 500 most used russian words ;))))
On a list of 5000 most frequently used German words ...
nr. 652 das Bein; -e .......... the leg
nr. 990 beinahe .......... almost
You'd use it when you're getting back from KFC, and they left out a piece.
Ok. I am trying to understand why mir is used. Is it because the object that is missing the leg is me? (Bind=direct object=accusitave, Mir=indirect object=dative)
Constructions like this can't be literally translated into English and make sense. "The leg is missing to me" makes no sense but it does in German. You just have to learn it.
Fehlen is a dative verb yes - http://german.about.com/library/verbs/blverb_dativ.htm
Just because it does not make sense in English, translating it like that can help to understand the logic of the language. At least for me it works better than "just learn it" :)
Missing has that same construction in French. It seems strange to English speakers but at least two major European languages use it. I wonder if other Euros have the same view.
Whenever I would find cognates like this between French and German, my French professor - who is French - would usually say that it was because of France and Germany's close proximity.
Vernacular seems to have a way of jumping across languages, so long as they're close together.
It would be better to say "My leg is missing." or literally "Of me that is missing is a leg."
Missing in terms of something that is no longer in possession of the owner or it is not in the location where it should be, "fehlen" is used.
Missing in terms of longing for or the emotional void left by something or (likely) someone, "vermissen" is used.
So, in English, if one was assembling a doll, one might say "I am missing a leg." and mean that one of the doll's legs wasn't included in the kit. So could you dispense with the dative when using "fehlen" and just say "Ein Bein fehlt!" instead?
You could think of it as something like "as for me, a leg is missing", which makes grammatical sense even if no English speaker would put it like that.
Yes they can, and it does make sense, at least in the context of language discussion, even tho its awkward sounding and never used by English speakers. Linguists study this stuff as a livelihood. It may be easier to "just learn it/just memorize it" for many but other people may want to gain an intuitive grasp of the language through explanation. I know my Japanese language learning really took off when I stopped learning in school and started truly translating and breaking down sentences that were "untranslatable". Theres so much we refuse to translate simply because of cultural differences/preferences but it leads to a loss of information that although you can do without, in my opinion, is enriching to keep in.
as spoken by the spider who crept out of a jam jar after a rescue attempt ....
Right before you go on a car trip... Swimsuits? Check Suitcases? Check Legs? No, I need to go and find mine
Einem is for dative objects; dative verbs are different. I think there's a lesson on it later, but sufficed to say- some verbs are always used with a dative pronoun, you just kind of have to memorize which ones do and don't.
It is ein Bein because this is direct object, it is leg that is being missing. On the other hand we use mir instead of Ich beacuse it is fixed phrase in German. You can see it as:
It is leg that is missing to me.
You could say Ein Bein fehlt mir, but that feels most natural to me as the answer to "What are you missing? What is it that you are missing?"
The neutral sentence is Mir fehlt ein Bein, I would say -- even though ein Bein is the grammatical subject.
For example, if someone asks "What's the problem?", I'd say Mir fehlt ein Bein rather than Ein Bein fehlt mir.
No, ein Bein is not a direct object -- is a subject.
For example, if you were missing a finger, you would say Mir fehlt ein Finger and not Mir fehlt *einen Finger.
hm, I thought it was object, but apparently I was wrong. I was confused because of fehlt and not fehle, and word order. Could you say it other way around? Ein Bein fehlt mir?
This discussion ios too nested, so that I can't directly reply to OgnjenG. Yes, technically you could say "Ein Bein fehlt mir", but you would rarely hear that (even less frequently than the original sentence). German is rather free with word order and you usually put important things first. You would only use your sentence if it is already clear that you are lacking some limb, but your partner incorrectly assumed it is an arm that is missing, so you try to correct him.
in principle it is ok, but you wouldn't normally use this word order. Perhaps only in poems, or after having been asked "Dir fehlt ein Arm?" and then answering "nein, EIN BEIN fehlt mir."
I can't imagine someone who could casually say that when he just realized that he has lost his leg
und ihm fehlt ein Bein!
ihm = dative of 'es', which I'm assuming is what you'd use for (das) Hähnchen.
Although I'm just a learner, so this may not be right...
I hope I never lose a leg in Germany as due to the shock I think I'd be unable to conjugate this sentence
What's the difference between "verpasst " and "fehlt" ? Both mean "miss " and I'm just kinda clear of the difference
"verpassen" can be used only in a context, where you could not reach a means of transport (or a date) in time. "fehlen" means "to lack", you use it if you have something less than expected.
I would like to know if we could say "Ich fehle ein Bein". Could anyone tell me please?
The correct translation, though awkward in english is 'To me a leg is missing'. So 'who' is doing the action of missing, the 'leg'. The leg is the subject here. So the verb should be 'fahlt' instead of 'fahle'.
"Ich fehle ein Bein" is not a grammatically correct German sentence. "fehlen" takes a dative object, in this case "mir". The subject is "ein Bein".
Well I am a surgeon and I find it most useful. My patients would prefer I didn't say it in German though..
Point being many sentences in the German version of duolingo are not useful for travelling nor beginners. The Spanish version is excellent. Time for a revision Duo!!!!!!!
'ein' can also mean 'one' though. when you want to say one (of something) you just use the indefinite article. so 'ein Bein' = 'a leg' or 'one leg', 'eine Blume' = 'a flower' or 'one flower', etc. i've only seen 'eins' used when talking specifically about the number 1
x is to y means y owns x. This construction exists in Latin as well, and an English speaker just needs to memorize it.
Apparently, according to someone very knowing, who also studied Latin, it is the DATIVE of POSSESSION. This in fact means nothing to me because I didn't even properly learn the basics of English grammar (or is it grammer ?)
just because you didn't learn it doesn't mean you have to criticize others who do know it. And it's grammar
'fehlen' means 'to be missing'. 'ich fehle' would therefore mean 'I am missing'. Here, a leg is missing, which translates as 'ein Bein fehlt', and dative is used to say where the thing is missing from, hence 'mir fehlt ein Bein' for 'as for me, a leg is missing'
Because it works as indirect object, ich declines to mir in the dative case.
does double your lingot wager by maintaning a week long daily challange double the amount of lingots you have?
No. It doubles your bet. In this case it is five lingots being bet that you might lose but you get ten if you win. ie: keep your streak going for seven days.,
If you set a daily challenge then you will have to meet that level every day for the period of the bet. From a strategy point of view to acquire lingots, it is probably a good idea to reduce your daily challenge, if you are going to start wagering on it.
What is the difference between "i'm missing a leg" and "i don't have a leg"?!
Assuming you are talking about an object rather than a person......
I'm missing a leg suggests that a leg was or should be there but no longer is.
I don't have a leg suggests only that there is no leg. Perhaps there never was one nor should it have had one.
What I find alarming is that this sentence seems like the person is surprised to find it missing. Like 'oops! Where'd it go?'
I'm putting together a flat pack coffee table, I get to the end and guess what. "Mir fehlt ein Bein"
leg Gender: Neuter ! "
Just a learner myself, but I don't think it can be that. If I understand correctly, 'fehlen' means 'to be missing'.
So your sentence 'Ich fehle ein(em) Bein' --literal--> 'I am missing to my leg'. Which, I guess, has some implication of the leg missing you or the leg being uncertain as to where you are, or something X-D
It's very odd from an English perspective.
'Fehlt dir etwas?' --literal--> 'Is something missing to you?' --rephrased--> 'Is something wrong with you?' --More-Englischy--> 'Is something wrong?', or 'Is everything okay?'
If anyone reads this and sees it as wrong, please correct me!
it is literally >>>> A leg misses me(CAUSE THERE IS A MIR NOT ICH) why mir is subject ?
It sounds like someone wakes up from a party & hangover and they're like: What happened? Who's in my bed? Where are my clothes? And also, where is my leg?
Sometimes those sentences just don't make any sense.... Million sentences that we actually need in a foreign country (just moved to Austria) but no - 'I am missing a leg' is more important
fehlen is "to be missing"; the subject is the leg, and you are the person "to whom" it is missing.
The German construction is different from the English one. In English you say "I am lacking a leg" with "I" being the subject. But the German word "fehlen" is used differently. The leg is the subject here and "I" appear only as a dative object, so it is "Mir fehlt ein Bein".
Not necessarily -- perhaps you never had a second leg due to a birth defect, for example.
It just means that you are missing one leg or that you lack one of your legs, whether that's due to having had two and then losing one, or simply having just one in the first place.
Erika592491 asked this question a month ago; please read the thread she started rather than repeating the question.
The word order is strange to me. 'My missing a leg'? Why is not 'Mir ein Bein fehlt'?
mir is not "my" but rather "(to) me" -- To-me is-missing a leg.
And the verb fehlt is in the second position of the sentence because that's where the verb belongs in a regular sentence: you can't put both mir and ein Bein in front of it.
in principle yes. But a table would rather seldom speak, so the sentence would not come up.
the construction in German is different from the English one: "ein Bein" is the subject of the sentence and "mir" is a dative (indirect) object.
Because ich is nominative case, used for the subject, but the subject of fehlen (to be missing) is ein Bein.
It's the leg that's missing, and it's missing "to you".
It is special phrase or we rly talking about someone who dont have legs and now miss >__>
I don't understand what you are asking. Can you express the question more clearly? What is your mother tongue (maybe knowing this could help)?
Mir alweys reset case form? Cuz i remeber fehlen+Dativ..ein is defintly not Dativ.
The dative is "mir". The "ein" belongs to "ein Bein", which is grammatically the subject of the German sentence and therefore nominative.
Everyone has wondered whose leg it is in the sentence and let's get it clear! The original sentence:
Es fehlt mir ein Bein.
I have learnt that reflexive pron followed by a DEFINITE noun means the noun is possessed by the pron, for example,
Ich wasche mir die Hände.
Though the case isn't reflexive but I think it still applies. And giving that the following noun is an INDEFINITE one so we can conclude that the leg is not the speaker's!(Otherwise it'll be"Es fehlt mir das Bein.")
This sentence means the speaker has lost a leg of toy or an animal, or a victim(in case it's a play line in Hannibal.)
Though you are right in the reflexive case, this does not apply here. The missing leg could be the speaker's or not. Usually one would assume it to be his/her own, if the context doesn't suggest anything different (such as the examples you gave). "Mir fehlt das Bein" would only be appropriate if it is known beforehand that the speaker has had only one leg which is now missing too. "Mir fehlt ein Bein" tells that the speaker is missing one of his/her legs.