As a hint, if you can use "solamente" instead of "sólo" you know that it should have an acent and means just, only. "solo" without the accent mean alone.
My English must be getting rusty. Even though I'm a native speaker this sounds weird to me. IMO I would add a for here. >>> He has prepared for the party. or He has prepared himself for the party.
Not the same, here it says that he prepared the party, not himself for the party. If you wonder in Spanish it is "El se preparó para la fiesta".
My understanding is that if you want to use it as an adverb meaning "only, merely" and there's a chance that it can be confused with the adjective from meaning "alone", you use it with an accent, sólo. So because this sentence doesn't read as "él sólo...", you assume that it means alone.
I tried "he alone has prepared for the party." Meaning that nobody helped him even a little bit. Poor bugger. Seems right to me.
So ... Él solo ha preparado ... = He alone has prepared Él sólo ha preparado ... = He only has prepared How can you tell the difference when someone speaks to you? (or just uses a keyboard without accents ...)
Just curious, can solo be put at the end of the sentence? Or would that sound strange for a native speaker? Èl ha preparado la fiesta solo. Thanks in advance!
I used "He alone had prepared the party" but it was wrong. I don't see the difference between using "had" and "has".
The thing about that is, for this lesson, Duolingo accepted "had" in place of "has" for some of the exercises that I've done.
In English no one would say "he prepared the party". That is a mistake. One can prepare a meal but often times in English prepare is followed by for.
Could solo be used as 'himself' here or is it only used in that way when it stands solo w/o a verb nearby? (pun intended)
El ha preparado la fiesta sólo. He has prepares the party alone. Leen la diferencia?