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  5. "Él solo ha preparado la fies…

"Él solo ha preparado la fiesta."

Translation:He has prepared the party alone.

January 21, 2014



As a hint, if you can use "solamente" instead of "sólo" you know that it should have an acent and means just, only. "solo" without the accent mean alone.


'He has prepared the party himself' was accepted 2 de julio de 2018


My English must be getting rusty. Even though I'm a native speaker this sounds weird to me. IMO I would add a for here. >>> He has prepared for the party. or He has prepared himself for the party.


Not the same, here it says that he prepared the party, not himself for the party. If you wonder in Spanish it is "El se preparó para la fiesta".


He prepared the party. His friends didn't help him, and he did it alone


Why not "He has only prepared the party," like if he were in charge of the party and someone else handled the (wedding, graduation ceremony, whatever) itself?


My understanding is that if you want to use it as an adverb meaning "only, merely" and there's a chance that it can be confused with the adjective from meaning "alone", you use it with an accent, sólo. So because this sentence doesn't read as "él sólo...", you assume that it means alone.


That's a good tip for the spoken version but when you just listen to it, it could be interpreted either way.


I tried "he alone has prepared for the party." Meaning that nobody helped him even a little bit. Poor bugger. Seems right to me.


But there is no for in the sentence. That's why it was marked wrong.


So ... Él solo ha preparado ... = He alone has prepared Él sólo ha preparado ... = He only has prepared How can you tell the difference when someone speaks to you? (or just uses a keyboard without accents ...)


You should normally get it by the context.


Just curious, can solo be put at the end of the sentence? Or would that sound strange for a native speaker? Èl ha preparado la fiesta solo. Thanks in advance!


I used "He alone had prepared the party" but it was wrong. I don't see the difference between using "had" and "has".


Had would be "había" and not "ha"


The thing about that is, for this lesson, Duolingo accepted "had" in place of "has" for some of the exercises that I've done.


hmm.... Don't know about that. It would have been incorrect anyway.


Thanks for the clarification then.


In English no one would say "he prepared the party". That is a mistake. One can prepare a meal but often times in English prepare is followed by for.


Could solo be used as 'himself' here or is it only used in that way when it stands solo w/o a verb nearby? (pun intended)


I do practically everything alone these days.


El ha preparado la fiesta sólo. He has prepares the party alone. Leen la diferencia?


He has only prepared for the party? That should be right shouldnt it?


The meaning of this sentence is not clear to me. Is it ”he has arranged the party by himself”?

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