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  5. "Ich höre dich nicht, hörst d…

"Ich höre dich nicht, hörst du mich?"

Translation:I do not hear you, do you hear me?

January 22, 2014



Now we can chat with Germans on skype


haha... made my day... here take my lingot...


Do they use semicolons in German?


Yes, but it's more optional. A Komma is often substituted. http://german.about.com/library/weekly/aa031901b.htm


This may sound like a dumb question, but in English, this format would be considered grammatically incorrect:

I do not hear you, do you hear me?

Instead we would write:

I do not hear you. Do you hear me?

Are the rules different in German, or is this just Duolingo?


I think it is just a colloquial way to write that. (if you speak that out loud, you often don't make a clear "period" between)


Ok, that makes sense!


So comma splices are permissible in German?


As a native English speaker, I would normally say, "I can't hear you, can you hear me?" Duolingo accepted this answer.


Great! I was wondering about this too. I answered "I don't hear you, do you hear me?" because I figured it was it wanted. But I agree, I would never say it that way. Like you, I would always say "can" to denote an inablity. "I don't hear you" sounds more like childish teasinh implying intentionally not listen. I have been taught to interpert "nicht" in the present tense with a verb as "do not (insert verb)". But I am wondering if the literal translation is closer to the more archaic sounding "I hear you not".


how is that sentence grammatically incorrect?


If you have to complete sentences you need to combine them with a comma and conjunction or put a period in between them. "I do not hear you" is a complete sentence. "Do you hear me?" is a complete sentence.

However, there might be a rule that makes this okay, but in formal English writing it is not.

The way they have it hear is more conversational. I was just being picky.


Actually, to be exact, a semicolon is required. 'I do not hear you; do you hear me?' I don't think german has semicolons though haha.


Is the grammar in German a lot different from English? There are a few things I have noticed.


ok, thanks, i was just wondering :) was just out of curiousity


'I hear you not' may not be common English usage, but its literary application runs deep enough to allow here, surely. What do you think DL?


The aforementioned is what I wroteth, but alas twas judged inaccurate.


Why is "I am not hearing you ..." incorrect?

[deactivated user]

    Report it.


    I did too (still rejected on 6 nov'14)


    I've learnt at school that verbs of perception were used with CAN. Ex : I can't hear you, can you hear me ? I can't see anything , etc

    [deactivated user]

      We're learning German here, not English. Nevertheless, there is nothing wrong with "do" being used with "hear."


      When do you use dich and when dir i am confused


      dir is Nominative case. Dich is the accusative case & is the Direct object person, animal, thing that an action is happening to.


      I agree. These are two independent clauses which can be two separate sentences or joined by a semicolon, not a comma.


      So how would you differntiate between i do not hear you vs i do not listen to you? In english those are 2 entirely different phrases.


      "Ich höre dich nicht" (I don't hear you) vs. "Ich höre dir nicht zu" (I'm not listening to you)

      Notice the change from accusative to dative in the object.


      Can this be used in a idiomatic sense? Like, could it mean "I don't understand what you're saying. Do you understand what I've been saying?"


      Why can't be "listen" accept here?


      "To listen" is different than "to hear". Here is a website that explains the difference. https://www.englishclub.com/vocabulary/cw-hear-listen.htm


      why is 'I hear you not' not accepted?? whats more literal and easier for me to understand


      "I hear you not. Do you hear me?" should be accepted.


      Why does nicht come after dich?


      dumb?.......why are the words in an order that doesnt make sense? it literally translates to i hear you not, hear you me? it doesnt make sense how they can be moved around tho actually mean something...


      It's perfectly correct sentence order in Middle/Early Modern English. The reason that the verb goes to the front in the final clause is because it's a question. Nicht, as an adverb, is generally placed right next to the verb/adverb/adjective it modifies, but with declarative sentences such as "I don't hear you" it goes all the way to the end of the clause/sentence.


      "Du bist nicht mein Freund" is also a declarative sentence, yet it goes in the middle.


      I can't hear you, can you? Should be accepted AFAIC


      Not a native english speaker, but im pretty sure ive heard people say: I "verb" you not. Shouldnt " I hear you not" be accepted? Please natives, answer me. lol.


      I actually can not hear the audio at all. It's not my Chromebook because I can hear it when I hover over the words.

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