34 Comments
I think "lo mismo" is an idiom meaning "the same." Therefore, this sentence pretty much translates directly from the Spanish to the English and vice versa. Yo peso (I weigh) lo mismo (the same) que (as) mi hijo (my son). My Colombian shoe repairman just last week said, "Lo mismo" when I wished him well. In other words, "The same (to you)."
I am still sitting here laughing because of a funny image in my head of a Columbian shoe repairman.
Welcome to the world of clitic pronouns.
"lo" when it stands alone is a proclitic pronoun of the third person singular variety, when it is stuck on the end of a verb it would be an enclitic pronoun. Got it? I don't. I have no idea what that means.
Look at it this way: My weight is the same as my son's or: My weight, it is the same as my son's.
Ergo: Lo=it (my weight) Mismo= is the same Que=as
That's easy, most clitics get even worser
I just thought it said beso instead of peso & I listened to it several times.
How do you translate this sentence ---- "yo peso" to I weigh and "que mi hijo" to as my son --- can you tell me how "lo mismo" fits in ---- "lo" refers to mi hijo but I find it difficult to decide when and where to put these direct object pronouns - have read the tips, of course ......... any help would be appreciated - I love this program but am totally stuck on this section
OK, I don't know if this is correct in terms of linguistics/grammar, but this is how I think about it to help me understand -- disregard if it doesn't help you. "Lo" is for taking what would be an adjective and making it a (conceptual) noun. Examples: "The best part of waking up is coffee in your cup." Spanish: "Lo mejor" (not "la mejor parte") "The most important thing is that she's kind." Spanish: "Lo más importante" (not "la cosa más importante"). Here "same" is a noun in the sense of "same weight" ("weight" is redundant, I know, but what I mean to say is that "the same" here is like a noun rather than an adjective).
"lo" here doesn't refer to your son; "lo mismo" means the same, "lo mismo que" means "the same as." "lo" is NOT a clitic pronoun here; it's a sort of determiner which can be used with masculine singular adjetives to refer to abstract concepts. For example, we could say, "Lo mejor es que somos juntos," meaning, "The best part is that we're together" or "The best thing about it is that we're together."
Yes 'el' is incorrect;, 'el mismos' isn't correct; in this sentence 'lo' is NOT a CLITIC PRONOUN, as it is used here in this sentence. In this case you need the neuter 'lo' definite article. In this sentence 'lo' is NOT the direct object. It is a neuter definite article, meaning THE. Just like UNDEADGOAT said twice above. 'lo mismo' is the concept of taking an adjective (mismo) and turning into a nown, meaning 'the same' or 'the same thing'. Since the use of 'lo' in this case is not a direct object pronoun, it would be best to put the lesson somewhere else because it is confusing to the learners.
"Lo mismo" just literally means "the same". Don't know what else to say, you've got the rest.
I`m having difficulties with this section as well, sherryhanan. There was another sentence with the term mismo in it where the direct object preceeded it instead of the verb: "Usted offece lo mismo que yo." "you offer the same as I/I do." Apparently the term mismo, in regard to the rules of spanish grammer, is treated differently. I wish sommeone would explain this to me.
"lo" is a determiner here, not a pronoun; "mismo" is an adjective, not a verb."
Here are the websites I find most useful for IOs (indirect objects) and DOs (direct objects):
http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/iopro1.htm
http://spanish.about.com/cs/grammar/a/objectpronouns.htm
http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/redundant-pronouns.htm
http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/verbs_using_indirect_objects.htm
http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=243985
http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/100017/indirect-object-pronouns#.UwLP328SPao
Why don't we need the personal 'a' here? Am I mistaken that my son is the object rather than the subject and therefore requires 'a mi hijo'
In English "the same" is the object. I'm just guessing, but maybe personal "a" is not needed in a prepositional phrase. "As my son" would be the prep. phrase
I totally agree with you. In this sentence 'lo' is NOT the direct object. I agree with you. 'lo mismo' is the object. and 'as my son is a prepositional phase, with my son as the object of the preposition . Not directed at you, but as a tip to those others that don't know, 'the personal 'a' comes between the verb and the direct object' . 'A' is a preposition meaning 'to' but when it is used as personal 'a', it is not translated into English.This sentence does not need to be in this section. it is totally confusing because people are expecting lessons on OBJECT PRONOUNS.
Glad you are hanging out in this module. I get what you said the personal a is not translated into English. That may help. So while you are in the neigborhood I have a question about a determiner. I don't remember the whole sentence "este pantalon" Answer 'this pant' or 'these pants' To me neither works. If it is these pants it should be 'estos pantalon(es). Pant never. What do you think?
I'm hanging out in the module because I can't pass the lessons HAHA, even if I know most of the pronouns, plus I read the remarks too much and then I can't move on. I haven't got to the Determiner section. But, I was told once that el pantalôn means one pair of pants and los pantalones means more than one pair. So if you speaking Spanish and you asked someone which pair of pants are wearing to the cookout you would use the singular form. On the other hand, if you ask how many pairs of pants are you taking on vacation you would use the plural form. So in Spanish, if you use the singular form you have to use este and ese. So, for the plural it would be estos and esos. However in English we don't have a singular form so we have to translate 'these and those' for both forms (the singular and plural). We never use 'pant' or at least not in my neck of woods.haha It is similar to the 'quien and quienes', which translates 'who' even if the plural form is used because we don't have a plural 'who' I hope I answered this to your satisfaction. Sometimes I can get long-winded LOL.
You can report it & they will add it if its deemed correct. The only reason I can think of is that they want us to distinguish niño from hijo.
