"I am waiting for my food."
Translation:J'attends ma nourriture.
Dat wud imply dat d'way i use lang nw is logical bc alotta ppl use it as such.
Logic behind language is its structure, grammar, vocabulary etc. If you have experience in Mathematics and programming, you can understand why logic in language should have a higher priority than common usage.
But the structure, grammar, and vocabulary of a language are not given to us by a burning bush at the top of a mountain. They are nothing more than an account of the systematic, spontaneous and accepted usage of the language. And it changes accordingly.
It doesn't imply what you say it implies, because there is a difference between widespread use and systematic use, and there's a difference between widespread use and widespread acceptance. The very fact that I'm supposed to be obviously convinced by your display proves as much.
The first person singular of attendre is attends. And the conjugation would have nothing to do with the number of the object, only the subject. http://www.wordreference.com/conj/FrVerbs.aspx?v=attendre
Take a look at the three categories of regular verbs: http://french.about.com/od/grammar/a/Introduction-To-French-Verbs.htm
It's damned if you do, damned if you don't. If repas were allowed, then that might teach the student, incorrectly, to think that it could translate as "food" in those contexts where it doesn't mean food-as-meal. If it isn't allowed, then that teaches the student, incorrectly, that repas cannot be translated into English as food.