"These pants fit me well."
Translation:Estos pantalones me quedan bien.
Why is it "Estos pantalónes", but "Este coche"? Did the explanation not say that "Eso/Esto" is used when the gender of the noun is unknown (which cannot be the case with "pantalónes" because it always is "los")?
Los pantalones, e.g. "pantS" not "pant" = masculine plural -> Estos pantalones El coche = masculine singular -> Este coche
It may be that there is no plural form of "esto", the gender neuter form of "this", which would be gender neuter "these". However, the masculine form of "this" is "este", and the plural of "este" is "estos". So the plural masculine form of "this" ... is ... "estos". I got it wrong as well, I put "estes", but that is a type of hobby rocket that I built when I was a little chico. Logic works so much better to build rockets, rather than language skills.
The English question says "these pants fit..." The Spanish answer appears only to accept the plural "Estos pantalónes". How is one to know whether the English speaker was referring to a single or multiple garments? I believe it is impossible without context, and thus a Spanish answer in the singular should be accepted, but can someone enlighten me as to why using the singular in Spanish might not be correct?
I have the same question. We know that pantalones is masculine, why is Estos used?
In English pants stands for pantalon. There is no singular word pant. So pantalón should be allowed.
Okay, wait, why was "Le quedan bien estos zapatos" correct but for "Me quedan bien..." I suddenly need to include "A mía..." I would think that if I was talking about myself, the subject would be clearer than if I just said "le."