"Mi ciudad está a algunos kilómetros de la costa."
Translation:My city is some kilometers from the coast.
I assume that, as in French, you want to indicate the location of the city, it is AT a point some kms from the coast.
Ditto. To say "at some kilometers" seems to make good sense, but is wrong in this lesson.
You have the power to negate a downvote with an upvote. I do it all the time when the downvote seems to be just unhelpful and/or meanspirited. :^}
No, Adam. It's because the city is somewhere and it's some km far from the coast. "A" is like instead of "far". And I put "far" there and it's wrong, I just didn't see the sentence properly.
Hello safuraha: I think your question is pertinent. I still have not seen a satisfactory answer here. Lingot for you.
DL explained it is the personal a. Maybe it's used here b/c it says MY city, not THE city, showing a kind of affection? like w/a pet.
Safurafa, it's because they haven't written "lejos de..." - "far from..." and that's why. I just don't know how to explain it better but I hope it helps...
i said "my city is a few kilometers from the shore," which was not accepted as correct either.
It accepted "My city is a few kilometers from the coast." They may have updated it, or perhaps it's coast vs shore.
Can "my city is some kilometers off the coast" be right? Can't "off" and "from" mean the same thing in this context?
When we say "off the coast" in English, we mean in the water. I guess if the city is an island that would work in English, but I don't know about the Spanish.
Hey! And can you please tell me why sometimes it's used "off of"? I'm not a native English speaker and I just wanted to know. Should I say it like that??? Or just "of" or "from"?
Evi, it's just a figure of speech. It means the same as away from, so it's like "x" miles away from the coast in this instance.
No matter how hard I listen or how often I play the recording for this sentence I cannot hear the woman say the "a" between está and algunos.
It's because the speaker is not putting any separation between the adjacent stressed and unstressed phenomes, rather just ever so slightly elongating the sound, which is extremely common among native speakers. It's known as connected speech and it happens in every language, although the specific forms it takes differ.
For example, in English, take the sentence "Give me an apple". If you think about how it sounds pronounced slowly and independently you'll surely notice it isn't the same as how it's actually said in normal speed speech, which is more like "Gimme uhnapple".
Another example, this time in Spanish, is instead of saying «Está al sur» as three distinct words, most native speakers will actually say «Estál sur». In the case of this sentence «está a algunos» becomes «está_algunos».
I disagree. "Some" can indicate, quite a few, depending on the context. Consider the following quote from Melville's Moby Dick.
"Some years ago - never mind how long precisely - having little or no money in my purse, and nothing particular to interest me on shore, I thought I would sail about a little and see the watery part of the world..."
"some" and "a few" mean different things. "Some kilometers" can be idiomatic for "pretty far", while "a few" means just that.
Why is it está and not es, since distance is unchangeable. Or is it that the reference point is changeable ?
As a native English speaker, I sure that "My city is at some kilometers from the coast." is acceptable. In the UK we might say "My city is at some miles from the coast"
"some" does not automatically signify "few" or "many", it signifies an unspecified amount greater than zero or perhaps one.