"I go to bed at eleven."
Translation:Me voy a la cama a las once.
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Nothing wrong with, "Me acuesto a las once" except that I don't think "acostarse" (or very much at all about reflexive verbs) has been covered yet in this course. As of May 24, 2015, it is accepted.
There is nothing wrong with it. I guess they wanted a more literal word for word, but in Mexico, the way you have it is how it is said.
The "me" means you are doing something to yourself. "I send myself to bed," that sort of thing. Check out reflexive verbs and reflexive pronouns at www.studyspanish.com
What is the significance of saying "LAS once..."? Is that just procedure when it comes to talking about time?
Yes, you should always say la/las when you're talking about time. Just FYI "la" is only use to say "la una". I often hear native Spanish speakers saying "laS una", but that's just not correct...
I also want to add that there is a difference between talking about what time it is (hora), and at what time you usually do stuff (horario). P.ej: Que hora es? Es la una/Son las dos. Tienes clase hoy? Si, a la una/A las dos :-)
Wow: I did not realize that IR is also used as IRSE, a reflexive verb. But acccording to my textbook, when it is used as a relexive verb, the translation is "to go away." I guess "IRSE A LA CAMA" is an idoim. Like Sheeplady I always used ACOSTARSE for to go to bed. Wonder if this idiom is used in Latin America.
me acuesto is just as correct as me voy a la cama. I think it should be accepted
did you put that in "Report a Problem"? That is where it needs to go if you think it is right.
I wrote me acuesto a las once and got it wrong, but there is nothing wrong with it
Why "a" and not "en"? Does not en mean to, at, etc. just like a? I do not understand the discussion of the verb acuesto - this is not a word we have had to date, and I have found that it is better to stick with what we have been fed than to look for new words.
Why is it not "Yo" voy a la cama a las once? I also do not understand how "me" works in " Se hace tarde, me tengo que ir." Can somebody please explain this for me? Thanks!
First I assume "yo me voy" = "me voy" and "yo voy" = "voy" we simply do not need to worry about "yo" here because it is built into "voy". "me" is not replacing "yo" here. So it is a matter why is "me" added. It seems "voy" alone is the conjugation of the verb "ir"(to go) and "yo" , and "me voy" is the conjugation of another verb "irse"(to leave)"and "yo". So the meaning is a bit different and Spanish simply got lazy/efficient and recycled "voy" for use with two different verbs. I'm not 100% clear on the difference in meaning. Some people on line said it is a matter of going to a known location vs simply just leaving. others have said it is a matter of timing one happens soon and the other is a bit delayed.
Wow, that sounds really complicated. Can we just say "Voy a la cama a las once" to mean "I go to bed at 11"?
I'm not sure. With the "me" it seems to be 100+ times more common in google searches( fragments of the phrase) so I'm going assume it probably is suppose to be there.
I'm fairly sure that when "ir a" is followed by a noun, the article is used. I don't recall ever seeing a rule about it, but this is how I've always seen and heard it. "Voy a la tienda." "Ella va al mercado." "Vamos al restaurante."
ok, so why isn't Me pongo dormir not accepted? colloquially in the majority of mexico that phrasing is widely used.
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How about "me llevo a la cama a las once"? When I do a web search on that, there are lots of questions about how to get women into bed, so perhaps best avoided.