Shouldn't this be "Wyt ti eisiau ei drafod fe?"? Or does trafod not have "ei" (either invisible or not) before it?
Either works here:
- Wyt ti eisiau ei drafod (e)? is rather more formal
- Wyt ti eisiau trafod fe? is more colloquial
If referring back to something just mentioned that was feminine (y ddrama, say), then of course ...ei thrafod (hi) or ...trafod hi would be used.
So if you put the "ei" (or fy, dy, etc.) before the verb it mutates, but if not you leave it as it is?
I asked the question because in other situations (like "Dw i'n meddwl mod i...", "Dw i'n meddwl fod i...", etc.) you don't put it in, but the verb still mutates.
Yes, and yes, it can seem strange at first that the patterns are not exactly alike.
Remember the base form is "bod" so you would never say "Dw i'n meddwl fod i". As it becomes "mod i" due to "fy" causing a soft mutation.
Sorry, I meant "Dw i'n meddwl fod ti..." for the second example. The invisible "dy" causes a soft mutation.
"Bod" to "mod" is a nasal mutation, though, isn't it?
Yes. fy causes a nasal mutation, which in this case remains even when the fy is dropped in informal usage :
- (fy) mod i