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  5. "She does not miss me."

"She does not miss me."

Translation:Io non le manco.

January 29, 2013



Is this one like piacere? I am not missed by her?


I always know how to use "piacere", I never know how to use this.


Guys its the same rule as piacere. Mancare is NOT to miss it means to BE MISSED. Like piacere is not to like but is PLEASING TO.


Are there any other verbs that have the same issue that I need to look out for ?


There are tons. Unfortunately you have to memorizs them as you further your learning


I just realized it is like in "hacer falta" in Spanish: No le hago falta = Non le manco


Sí, también me di cuenta de eso! :D


This is where I throw my hands up in despair.! If I translate this as I am not missed by her, I get 'Io non sono mancati da lei." If I translate the test question I get "i do not miss her.' I would appreciate some help here! Many thanks in anticipation.

  • 2584

You picked the wrong meaning of "mancare" :P

"Non sono mancato da lei" is the passive form of mancare, which refers to its transitive meaning, "to miss" as the contrary of "to hit": it can still be translated as "I am not missed by her", but it sounds like a roundabout way of saying "she hits me".

"I am not missed by her" as "she doesn't feel my absence" would be "Io non manco a lei" (intransitive meaning of mancare), and that's where "Non le manco" comes from.


But why isn't it "Non mi manca" like we learned in clitics? or are you saying that manca is not a conjugated form of a verb? SO CONFUSED

  • 2584

It is a verb, but remember that mancare works like piacere (unless it's used as the contrary of hitting):

  • Non mi manca: I don't miss him/her/it

  • Non le manco: She doesn't miss me


Omg a lightbulb just went off in my head. Thank you so much!! I get it now, much appreciated! :)


Light bulb moment for me as well. Thanks so much! Have a lingot...


You may also think of it as

Non mi manca: He is not missing to me

Non le manco: I am not missing to her

Awful english, but it may help to get the idea.


I agree with You. I was totally confused about translation...


Great explanation, f.formica, thank you!


I hate this construction. It's the same in French. It feels so backwards to the English speaking mind. It's ok, i'll work on it.


is "le" exclusively for "a lei" or can it be used for feminine plural, such as "non a le donne manco?"

  • 2584

Most clitics have more than one function, but in your example you're using its article form: non must stick to the verb and a+le becomes alle, so it should be "non manco alle donne". Le can indeed be feminine plural as clitic pronoun, but not as indirect object, rather as direct object: "non le conosco" (I don't know them) and "non le parlo" (I don't speak to her).


Is it the Italian verb that determine if the clitic pronoun will be direct(accusative) or indirect(dative)?

For example:

If the Italian verb is transitive, then I'll use the "direct clitic" - accusative? mi, ci, ti, vi, lo/la, li/le.

If the Italian verb is intransitive, then I'll use the "indirect clitic" - dative? mi, ci, ti, vi, gli/le, loro/gli.

Is it correct? What website could I use to search if a verb is transitive or intransitive?

  • 2584

Unfortunately it's not always that easy, as many verbs can be both, and a transitive verb can have an indirect object as well (e.g. dare in its usual transitive form obviously wants a dative as well). Most dictionaries will tell if a verb is transitive, intransitive or both; unfortunately not all of them clearly state if you can use an indirect object and to what effect: the collins dictionary tends to go by examples, wordreference tends to list them as compound forms. Unfortunately I don't know of any explicit enough.


Thank you, anyway. At least I am in the right direction. I will pay attention unto it. Farewell!


i understand "Non le manco" but not why "Io non le manco" is an accepted answer.


If you check it says: "Io no le manco" instead of "Io non le manco". I made the same error.


Yeah me too, that was a cheap shot, so to speak. I was so focused on the clitic that I missed that small detail ..


I always want to write "I miss you" but I always hesitate b/c of this usage. So is "I miss you" "mi manchi?" meaning "you are missing to me"?


You are correct, "Mi manchi" means "I miss you"


Speaking from a French background which also has these sorts of verbs, I find it useful to think of "manca" as "it is missing," so "io non le manco" would be "I am missing to her," which is a clunky way in English to say "she misses me" (imagining "I am missing" to mean that I am missing in a physical sense rather than the abstract, just for sentence construction purposes - if I am [physically] missing to her, she does not have me with her: she misses/does not have my physical form, so to speak). Same with "piace" - "it is pleasing."

This is what I was taught - I would be grateful for input.


How is it "IO non le manco" when io means I??


I am not missed by her = she doesn't miss me.

we just don't have verbs like this in English. we can used passive voice to translate it, but Italian also has a passive voice that doesn't look anything like this.


I, not by her, am being missed



Can someone explain the reason for "a lei non manco io" being correct, "Non le manco" being correct while "Le non manco io" being incorrect?

  • 2584

The word order in Italian is only flexible "in groups": some words, like "non" and clitics, stick to the verb (the auxiliary if composite), and when more than one occurs the order is fixed, i.e. first non, then indirect clitic, then direct clitic. It gets even more complicated when you add the other clitics, e.g. si, ci or ne (there is a nice clitic ordering rule in paragraph 2.3.1 of this PDF). They must go before the verb in most conjugations, and are attached at the end of others.


Thanks. A particular issues was the difference between 'le' and ' a lei'. If I understand correctly, if one wants to move this to the beginning, it must be the 'a lei' form and never 'le'. Is it correct?

  • 2584

Yes, prepositional phrases can go almost anywhere, so you have much more freedom once you give up the clitics.


Thanks for the clarification!


Why is 'lei non mi manca' (she does not miss me) incorrect? It has the correct words and positions, why isn't this an answer choice?

  • 2584

Because as long as the context isn't her trying to hit you, "lei non mi manca" means "I don't miss her" ;)


Where on earth is the she implied in the duo sentence?


The word "le" shows us that it is "she" who misses me, or in this case, doesn't miss me. Another way of putting it would be: io non manco a lei, so the "a lei" becomes "le" before the verb


Is "lei non mi manca" wrong?


Yes. read the other comments here. (Io) non manco a lei = I am not missed by her.

It's possible that you could say a lei non manco.


Clitics - I think this is where my ability to understand a language falls apart. One of those "It works like this but for THESE thing" areas.


A lei non manco? OK?


Even after reading through these comments, I still struggle with this.

I thought 'manco' is 'I miss'.

So the sentence translated to me means 'To her, me, I miss'.

Can anyone directly translate the sentence so I can form some kind of rule for it?


Not by her (non le) I am missed (manco) is about the only way I can understand this sentence structure. Would that be correct? And, is it a rule I can rely on?


Why "Non le manco" and not "Non la manco"?


le is the correct indirect object form for "her". le = * a lei*.

"I give the book to her" = (io) le do il libro or (io) do il libro a lei Direct object: the book
Indirect Object: her

but: "I see her" = (io) la vedo
Direct Object: her


I grind to a complete halt with these verbs.


im getting confused about the pronouns: what context would you use 'lei' and not 'le', for 'she'?


le is the indirect object. It means the same thing as a lei. Which one you use depends on the position in the sentence. Just before the verb you use le (in that position, it's called a "clitic", which are direct and indirect objects appearing before the verb). When the pronouns appear elsewhere in the sentence, they are called "tonic" or "stressed" pronouns, and have a different form: "a lei".

Look up the tips and notes on clitics in this course. I really can't think of a way you'd use a direct object pronoun except before the verb, because it appears alone. When indirect objects are used, if they're not in front of the verb, they are usually preceded by a preposition, so you know what's going on.

"I give the book to her" = (io) le do il libro or (io) do il libro a lei
Direct object: the book
Indirect Object: her


I ANSWERED 'A LEI NON MANCO IO.' Shouldn't that be correct? Based on the earlier question and answer, it would be, I think.


I was marked wrong for non le manco io

I think that it's because putting io after the verb is an emphatic, and the sentence doesn't indicated that emphasis is required.

Duo does accept io non le manco. I think it might be awkward to say io a lei non manco even though technically correct.


One minute DL likes "Io non le manco", giving "non le manco" as the alternative; the next minute it wants "a lei non manco". What's up?


this is not the same as she does not miss me


why "le" and not "la?" I see no plurals in this sentence.


when there is so many queries about this answer - is that saying we are missing something in understanding this \ question. "it says you cannot use the lui/lei " we should use the io. the question is "SHE does not miss me" where is the IO.?

  • 2584

There are so many queries and you didn't read a single reply? She does not miss me -> I am not missing to her -> io non manco a lei -> io non le manco.


Where are the dictionary and grammer hints they used to have?


What does, "Lei, non mi manca" mean?

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