"Who has seen him?"
Translation:Pwy sy wedi ei weld e?
Separate problem, separate comment :-) I still don't understand this "sy". As I understand it from other comments on other threads it is both a form of "bod" and a relative pronoun. I take it it's a form of "bod" here? As learners, when should we use "sy" and not "yw/ydy" or "mae"? It seems to often occur with "pwy"...
Hmm it's and awkward one to explain. I guess it kind of means "that is". So "Pwy sy 'ma?" is "Who is it that is here". Again kind of. I guess the knly way to learn where to use it is to learn each time since no pattern is coming to mind right now.
Here's a table explaining when to use sy, when to use yw/ydy and when to use mae http://ssiw.pbworks.com/w/page/44701949/Ydy(yw),%20mae%20or%20sy
It took me a while to get my head around this table, as the examples are quite difficult for me at my level of Welsh. But Now I think I understand. With questions: "ydy/yw" for identity, "sy" if the question word is the subject of the sentence, and "mae" in all other cases. Not sure I'll be able to remember this when speaking, but I think I get the theory at least now.
I missed the 'o' as last word and was marked wrong - but I thought it was optional? Why is it compulsory here?
Hmm with normal possessives yes, but I would almost definitely use it here. The reason for this is because in modern Welsh it's not uncommon to drop the "ei" and make this sentence closer to what it would be in English i.e "Who has seen him" instead of "Who has his seen him" (Pwy sy wedi (g)weld o?). EDIT: The "g" is in brackets because I'm not sure if we keep the mutation even though the possessive is gone or if we lose the mutation.
Sorry, maybe I missed some lesson notes, but I don't understand this construction. Why is it "ei weld o"? Does this happen with all verb constructions, or is it just with wedi, and the passive? I see from the other comments here that ei can be left out, but why is it here in the first place?
It's the more traditional way of putting things. You can use it in any tense (I think so any way.) e.g "Dw i'n ei guro fo" "I am his beating him", "Mi fydda i'n ei guro fo." etc.(Curo means "To beat" in both senses of the word.). There is no reason for it to be there other than the fact that it's a part of Welsh grammar, but as I said in my other comment it can be left out in the modern language due to the effect of English.
So in Welsh the possessive is used for the direct object of a verb, but you don't always see this as the possessive pronoun can be left out?