"Do you see that watch?"
Translation:Widzisz tamten zegarek?
Is there any particular reason why "zegarek" has the same form in nomative and accusative? I was under the impression that this sort of thing only happens for neuter nouns. Is there a general rule here, or is this just an exception?
It's wider. It happens for:
masculine singular inanimate (what we have here)
not masculine-personal plural
Actually, both. The notions of distance are different between Polish and English. Polish uses "ten/ten/tamten", while English uses "this/that/that". As we do not know which "that" is used here, both "ten" and "tamten" work.
"tamty" is not a word, the masculine singular determiners (this/that) are ten/tamten.
Why is sentence #2 wrong if it gives about the same translation in Google Translate?
1 Widzisz tamten zegarek? (right)
2 Widzicie tamtą zegarek? (wrong)
1 Do you see that watch?
2 See that watch?
Please don't use Google Translate for anything else than just 'general understanding of text'. Even if it got better recently, it still gives absolutely zero guarantee of showing you correct grammar.
"Widzicie tamtą zegarek" uses a feminine form "tamtą" with a masculine noun "zegarek". Google Translate translated all the words separately and showed you something that makes sense in English, but didn't tell you that the Polish sentence makes no sense. In fact, I just tried to translate the same, and Google Translate... thinks that the word "Widzicie" is wrong, but doesn't see a problem with "tamtą zegarek". This beautifully shows that it just cannot be believed. It suggests you that a correct word is wrong ("widzisz" is for 2nd person singular, "widzicie" is for 2nd person plural, so both are correct and both translate to "do you see") but ignores a huge grammatical mistake.