Native speaker here - in (very) formal speech the '-ו' "and" can have multiple pronunciations, such as "va" or "u" in addition to "ve", but in modern speech only "ve" is used, except in maybe songs or some idioms. I don't even know the rules for when (formally) each pronunciation should be used (though maybe other native speakers do, idk).
In Sephardic representations of Biblical Hebrew (my only area of Hebrew knowledge thus far), it's ve (sheva sound) before most consonants, with the following exceptions:
Before vet, mem or fe, or before any consonant with a sheva under it, it is usually long "u" (shuruk)
Before a consonant with chataf patach (short a, dialectically either as in bat or father) it's usually va (with patach)
Before chataf segol (short e as in bed) it's usually ve (as in veterinarian)
Before chataf kamats (o as in row in Sephardic Hebrew but dialectically more of an a) it's usually va (with kamats) with a as in father.
Before yod it's sometimes vi (with hiriq, pronounced like the English name of the letter V).
Since modern Hebrew rarely uses the niqqud (vowel points) outside of scripture anyway, it's easy to see why the every-day pronunciation has simplified for certain things like this.
The formal "THE ACADEMY OF THE HEBREW LANGUAGE" (here: https://hebrew-academy.org.il/) list the following rules for nikud of vav hachibur (the vav of addition):
Shva, pronounced as u for words starting with the letters בומ"ף. Examples: וגבעות (u-gvaot translates to "and hills"), ובנות (u-banot translates to "and girls").
In words where the next latter is chataf, the vav will get the same nikud as the chataf. For example, in the word ואני (va-ani) the א has the nikud chataf patach, which leads to the vav getting a patach. In the word ואמת the א has chataf segol, which leads to the vav getting a segol.
A vav preceeding a word which has a yud with shva at the begiing such as ילדים (yeladim, kids) and יהודים (yehudim, jews) will get a chirik and pronounced as vi.
In some common constant attachment of words the vav will get a kamatz and be pronounced as va. Examples, כפתור ופרח "Kaftor va-perach" which translate to a butten and a flower and is an expression. A second example would be בשר ודם "basar va-dam" which translate to flash and blood.
Because the vowel of the letter ו changes because of the vowel of the first letter of the word it is attached.
In today's modern Hebrew most of the speakers, even if Hebrew is their mother tongue, they don't have a clue about linguistics built of the language of the Bible (that's what I studied for first and second grade), that's why they pronounce it like they don't know what vowel should be under the consonant letters, because they never write it, that's why they pronounce it like "veata" which is actually wrong, but as noone knows, noone corrects each other.
Duolingo try to teach the correct pronunciation, even if most of the Israelis they don't know it and pronounce it wrong and might even correct you wrong.
(Another native Hebrewer here) Bold explanation! But I think not. Just about all Hebrew speakers would say "ve-ani", and it will never sound "ve-yani". And whether we say "ve-ani" or "va-ani", none of us would pronounce a glottal stop there.
The question stands, why the speaker for Duolingo pronounced "va". In fact it sounded completely natural to me, and if I had to record it for something like Duolingo I'd also instinctively say "va", although in everyday talk I always say "ve", even if I'd speak to an auidence.
As Dvir Moran said above, the "academy" rule dictates "va" (before the א with the "a" vowel). But this is an exotic rule that I don't know well, and most Hebrew speakers know even less. So it doesn't explain my and the Duo's speaker tendency.
My theory is... we learnt it from songs! Here's one: https://youtu.be/d3TFI_2G52M?t=32 This great hit from 1975 represented Israel in an international contest; I'd expect some authorities made sure the singer pronounced everything "properly".
Here's another one: a charming medium hit from 1987: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8FtMqNVH5oc (right at the beginning: "Guy, ata va-ani ve-duy" The composer of that one, the legendary Naomi Shemer, was a member of the Academy of the Hebrew Language, and surely made sure the singer would pronounce everything "properly".
And lastly: https://youtu.be/qoGurrdtz6Q?t=77 https://youtu.be/l-tRKBTJVE0?t=67 Two great hits from the same 1991 album. By then there would have been no authorities to correct the singer Gidi Gov, but he's already been an oldie who was educated to sing "right", and possibly internalized the "right" pronunciation from older songs.
Most of the time ו comes before a word creates a 've' sound. On the other hand, formally this could be 've', 'va' or 'u' sound depending on the work it is attached to.
In spoken language, the distinction vanishes with some native speakers who pronounce everything as 've' (which is wrong). This is why it sounds natural to native Hebrew speakers. You may follow my response above to see how it should sound in the correct rules.
I was just about to suggest it, but you were 12 hours earlier than me :) A beautiful song by Arik Einstein.
Haha I've been learning Hebrew all my life and the worst part is separating words into masculine and feminine. Hebrew has all the to be verbs except in present tense. Why? Because Hebrew is like "here's a long list of rules you must learn.....here's a list of exceptions to each and every rule"
If you refer to finishing a LOT of DL trees, then it is true that I did that! When Immersion was around, finishing a tree gave me enough information to do translation work from many languages. Translation work is not as involved as "learning" the language... But, yes, I did learn to read, speak and write basic sentences in many languages and in some of them, I got quite advanced. Does that make sense? Of course, the story behind my answer is much longer!
To learn a lot of languages is not that hard IF you can learn one in each group. For example, once you learn German, it is fairly easy to 'pick up' the other Germanic languages. The same goes for the Latin (Romance) and Slavic languages... The Asian languages are a bit more complex (at least to me they seem seem so) but I find Chinese worthwhile learning because it seems to be linked to the Hebrew culture more than any other language!
I dabbled in different languages before DL was around. For me, working on multiple (related trees) is not very difficult. Usually, I do one NEW language (for example Swahili or Japanese) at a time while I practice languages that I am familiar with (for example, German, Greek, or Hebrew) at the same time. Sometimes, I spend a LOT of time in one language; other times, I spend a little bit of time in several at the same time... Languages are a hobby, so I don't have a fixed schedule and my free time varies from week to week...
Thank you John. Google translator shows 'אֵת' as a possible word but I am looking for a native speaker to confirm it! Yes, that word can be found in some ancient Hebrew versions of Genesis 1:1, which makes it interesting as the use of 'vav' is the common form in Genesis 1. But here, I am interested in what the modern Hebrew usage is...
The archaic usage of אֵת is very much different than the modern. In modern Hebrew, it is borrowed from Latin et ("and"), but in ancient Hebrew it meant to or with. Do you have any examples of manuscripts that use it for Genesis 1:1? I'd never heard of it being used there before.
An easy one to check would be the WLC_v (v1.1): Westminster Leningrad Codex with vowels. You can find it at: http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/Hebrew_Index.htm
After going through the DL Hebrew course, I wonder if the Gen 1:1 constructs I mentioned earlier are not the same as the modern version usage... Feel free to contact me directly for more details on this topic. Thanks.
TL;DR: To answer your question, yes is it the same though pronounced differently.
The Hebrew speakers who originate from Yemen (Temanim) speak the same Hebrew like the rest in terms of spelling and grammar. They do, however, along with other middle eastern originating Hebrew speakers, pronounce the ח (chet) and the ע (Ayin) from inside the through in a manner similar to Arabic.
Aleph does make a sound on its own! The sound is Ah. In Hebrew, we use Niqqude (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Niqqud) which is an orthography similar to vowels in English. The letter Aleph either represents a glottal stop or indicates a hiatus (the separation of two adjacent vowels into distinct syllables, with no intervening consonant). It is sometimes silent (word-finally always, word-medially sometimes: הוּא [hu] "he", רָאשִׁי [Rashi] "main", רֹאשׁ [Rosh] "head", רִאשׁוֹן [Rishon] "first"). The pronunciation varies in different Jewish ethnic divisions.
The Niqqude will offer help in pronunciation and sadly, is not included in Duo.
Yes, and what you wrote actually says what I also wrote. Aleph is not like other letters. A glottal stop is not a "letter". It is a sound, but not like bet, or resh. And just like the examples you listed - the sound of aleph comes from the nikud that is attached to it, not from the letter itself.
Aleph has a sound and a glottal stop is one of Aleph's functions. In the word אבא The first Aleph has a sound. It is "Ah". It is not related to any other latter. The second Aleph Acts similar to a vowel and does not have a sound but gives the tone for the Bet. You wrote "Aleph actually doesn't "make" a sound on it's own ". It does.
If Aleph is just a place holder, explain the difference in pronunciation between ע and א. Watch this (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2-9MMghUsLo) for reference.
Aleph is an אם קריאה (https://he.wikipedia.org/wiki/%D7%90%D7%9D_%D7%A7%D7%A8%D7%99%D7%90%D7%94) which is what you meant, a letter used for a vowel and not a constant. For example in the word ראשון (Rishon)(https://he.wikipedia.org/wiki/%D7%90). But Aleph an אם קיראה does have a sound. The אם קריאה latter are אהו"י. Each of them has a unique sound. א is ah, ה is ha, ו is va, and י is ya. All are different sounds and all may be subjugated ti Niqqude. A point below the א will create the sound ea. But it is a sound!
I am sorry if it is hard for you but I think you are wrong in saying that Aleph does not have a sound. I have made my best to support it with references. I am really not here to argue with anyone. My goal is to help NeilJaqua as best I can. He will decide which is the best answer for him. My conversation with you on the topic is over since you do not support your claims by anything other than your opinion and the conversation does not benefit any of us.
Then, what you are saying is the opposite of what is written in the tips and notes and what many other Hebrew teaching sites say, and what other Hebrew natives I spoke with. Excuse me if I take their word over yours.
Yes, you shared some links, but I don't think we are talking about the same thing.
Anyway, thanks for the downvotes. I thought we were having a discussion, but apparently I was wrong.
דני יקר אני מבין שנורא בוער לך להיות צודק אבל אתה חייב לזכור את המטרה כאן. המטרה היא לעזור לבחור שמנסה ללמוד את השפה. לא נורא אם טעית. שחרר..
לאות א' יש צליל בין אם אתה רוצה או לא ולא משנה עם כמה דוברי עברית דיברת. אם הקישורים הקודמים שלי לא טובים לך, הנה לך אחד מהאקדמיה ללשון (https://hebrew-academy.org.il/2013/09/01/%D7%A2%D7%99%D7%A7%D7%A8%D7%99-%D7%AA%D7%95%D7%A8%D7%AA-%D7%94%D7%A0%D7%99%D7%A7%D7%95%D7%93/). עם האקדמיה קשה להתווכח כי הם אלה בקובעים. שם לב במיוחד להגדרות של עיצור, תנועה ואם קריאה. א' היא אם קריאה ותנועה (לא עיצור נכון ואני חושב שזו הכוונה שלך). אבל לא כתוב בשום מקום שאין לה צליל. אם תצליח להביא לי גורם רשמי אחד שמציין של-א' אין צליל אני אסיר בפניך את הכובע. דוברי עברית אחרים זה ממש לא מספיק. רוב האנשים שמדברים עברית מדוברת עושים המון טעויות.
No, it isn't. You use "me" for the direct or indirect object, not for the subject. To know for sure which you should use, take out the other personal pronoun. You don't say "me am going to the store" so you don't say "you and me are going to the store" - you say "you and I."
The example in this lesson is not a sentence, but the accusative/dative "me" would look different in Hebrew, so we know it's nominative. For example, "you love me" would be אתה אוהב אותי, where אותי means "me." The dative is formed from the preposition ל־ and takes the form לי for "to/for me."
"You and I" are subject pronouns. "You and Me" are object pronouns. "You and I are studying Hebrew. You are studying Hebrew. I am studying Hebrew." Not, "Me am studying Hebrew." But, "He gave the dog to you and me. He gave the dog to you. He gave the dog to me." Not, "He gave the dog to I."
The comment is 3 yrs old and has 7 down votes. Maybe we should have just "Let sleeping dogs lie".