"היא מתעלפת כי חם והיא לא שתתה הרבה מים."
Translation:She is passing out because it is hot and she hasn't drunk much water.
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"Hasn't drunk" is perfectly natural for me, and I'm a native American speaker. Then again I'm 69 and grew up when we learned irregular verbs' simple past + past participles. We learned, e.g., drink-drank-drunk, shrink-shrank-shrunk, swim-swam-swum. My skin still crawls when I hear the movie title, "Honey, I Shrunk the Kids." Many Americans don't even know how to use past perfect anymore. I think this comes from generations of teachers not correcting students' grammar and syntax errors for fear of stifling their creativity or injuring their self-esteem.
It's considered completely correct to UK and Australian speakers. In fact, as an Australian speaker, 'didn't drink' in this particular context sounds a bit strange to me. The sentence seems to require the perfect tense because it's not a simple complete action but rather something she 'hasn't done' or 'hasn't been doing' until now. (So in fact 'she hasn't been drinking' should be accepted too).
It's natural (it doesn't sound wrong) but rather (imho) it sounds clunky or more... formal, compared to "didn't drink". I think the commenter who mentioned it's an older usage has it right.
I'm Gen X (and a huge fan of 1960s TV and movies), so this might be a case of millennials (or people who haven't watched a lot of media before the 1970's or 1980's) having trouble with the phrasing...
i really just want to know why היא מתעלפת כי חם והיא לא שתתה הרבה מים can only be translated as "hasn't drunk" as opposed to did not drink. שתתה is past tense for drink, ie drank. However, in the negative form drank doesn't work in English... so can use did not drink. What in the hebrew tells you that you have to use the past participle (drunk) with has versus using did + the present form of the verb (drink)? I do believe that in American English we would say she didn't drink enough water ...
This is one of many cases where they use the English present tense in a weird way.
"She is passing out" sounds to me like is is repeatedly passing out (slipping in and out of consciousness) or perhaps is exactly at the moment when she is (right now) becoming unconscious.
To say that she is unconscious, shouldn't one say "she is passed out" ?
The option isn't "drank vs drunk"; it's "didn't drink vs hasn't drunk".
Attempting negation of "drank" would lead to a form that's less appropriate, even slangy, for this context, such as "never drank". Otherwise, a greater rewording allows "drank" affirmatively, such as "drank too little".
As is so often true, the course creators are inconsistent and fail to correct these issues when pointed out to them. They violate their own standards if they require "passing out" or "passes out" and reject "fainting" or "faints". Just click on the word "מתעלפת" at the top of this page and see their own translation as "passes out, faints".
If they want to show us a distinction between those two translations, they need a different context, such as "she passes out because of the drugs that she takes", or "... because she has narcolepsy". But in the current exercise, fainting is how she is passing out.