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  5. "למנגו יש ריח טוב."

"למנגו יש ריח טוב."

Translation:Mango has a good smell.

June 22, 2016



The pronounciation suggests that the sentence is about a mango in general (lEmango), not the specific mango (which would be lAmango, wouldn't it?).


You're right. I suggest you report it.


I did. I finally figured out that instead of spamming in comments, it's better to just report.


Why is this a problem?


It used to be a problem because the suggested translation was "The mango has a good smell". Now they have apparently fixed it, and it is about a general mango, as the translation suggests.


Could טוב in this specific case be translated as "nice" as well?

  • 533

It should. It didn't. Reported


le'mango yesh re'akh tov


Why is it "ל" instead of "ה"? Would they both be correct?


You could say המנגו מריח טוב = the mango smells good. but המנגו יש ריח טוב is not a correct sentence. The ל implies the ownership in the way the verb "to have" is constructed in Hebrew. Translated literally this sentence is "there is good smell to the mango". the ל incorporated the "to the".


With the definite article, shouldn't it be "la-mango"? I'm hearing "le-mango."


It isn't necessarily the definite article here. You could say le-mango and this sentence can mean "(any) mango has good smell.


Yes, but since the audio is just supplementary here, and the real exercise is translating the written sentence, the audio might take either side while both answers would be accepted


Thank you! That explains it :)


The way I understand this sentence is "to the mango there is a good smell." Take that for what it's worth.


The only issue with the translation is that when translating verbatim from H to any western language, an interpretation is required to have the sentence make sense. "For the mango there's a nice smell" simply reads what we all know: Mangoes smell nice...


Why is it למנגו יש rather than יש למנגו in this case?

  • 533

Hebrew isn't as strict about word order as English. Both variants are acceptable.

That said, what is this sentence about? Mangos. The mango is the subject. So it makes sense to put the mango first, and the word that modifies the mango (יש) afterwards. But feel free to phrase it in any of these ways for the desired emphasis:

למנגו יש ריח טוב

יש למנגו ריח טוב

ריח טוב יש למנגו

But don't say the following. It makes you sound like Yoda:

ריח טוב למנגו יש


I liked the Yoda quip, thanks


My dog has no nose.

Really? How does he smell?



Reyakh. Though sometimes pronounced re-akh (native speakers swallow the y sound).


The other way around, I think: It's always /re-akh/, and /re-yach/ is an anomaly that's fading away. It's the pronunication of Israelies who immigrated from Poland and Russia up until the 30's, their most luminary example (for pronunication jokes) being Shimon Peres. Also you find it in songs from the 50's through mid-70's, because singers were taught to add it on the grounds that hyatus is not nice. https://youtu.be/oOw-NO7VzV4?t=49 (/ya yareyach/: יא ירח, addressing the moon).


Or: Mango has a nice odor? Or: Mango has (a) good scent?


Yes. (You would need the "a" in both sentences).


I am not sure why 'Mango has a pleasant smell" is not an acceptable reply. Does anyone know why. When speaking about smell, good or pleasant are synonymous.


As to your question, why something isn't accepted. Because it's impossible to include every single possible translation of every sentence. The translations are input manually into the system. So, whenever you write a correct answer and it gets rejected, you can report it and hopefully they will add it to the list of correct answers. You can try reporting this next time you come across this sentence.

Personally, I'd translate "pleasant" as נעים. To me, they are not exactly synonymous.


"The mango smells good" is accepted :)


Why "a" article is needed for "good smell"?? Why "mango has good smell" is incorrect?


Are you asking regarding the translation of this sentence, or in English generally?


You need the article "a" in front of mango in English. Here's an article explaining it: https://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/when-to-use-articles-before-nouns

  • 533

That depends on whether you are using "mango" as a countable noun or as a mass noun. If mangoes smell good in general and that is the message you are trying to convey, then it's fine to treat it as a mass noun and forego the indefinite article. In fact, saying "a mango smells good" indicates that there is somewhere in the world a mango that smells good. That is not what you're trying to say.

The article you linked gives a similar example: Fruit is on sale.


So, if "Mango smells good" is an acceptable translation, why is "A mango smells good" rejected?


Why is "There is a good mango smell" wrong ?


The subject is the mango, not the smell.


How would we say , "a mango (smells good/has a nice smell)" ?


Same way as the sentence above.


Just reported because 'a mango smells good' was marked incorrect


Id also like to point point out that this is a terribly constructed english sentance as well.


Because native English speakers wouldn't usually describe the way something smells in that way. The most common way of saying it would be "The mango smells good." I think the translation "The mango has a good smell" is a more literal translation and maybe has been translated like this to help learners to better understand the way the Hebrew is constructed? "The mango has a good smell" sounds like something a learner of English would say.

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