The pronounciation suggests that the sentence is about a mango in general (lEmango), not the specific mango (which would be lAmango, wouldn't it?).
I did. I finally figured out that instead of spamming in comments, it's better to just report.
It used to be a problem because the suggested translation was "The mango has a good smell". Now they have apparently fixed it, and it is about a general mango, as the translation suggests.
You could say המנגו מריח טוב = the mango smells good. but המנגו יש ריח טוב is not a correct sentence. The ל implies the ownership in the way the verb "to have" is constructed in Hebrew. Translated literally this sentence is "there is good smell to the mango". the ל incorporated the "to the".
With the definite article, shouldn't it be "la-mango"? I'm hearing "le-mango."
It isn't necessarily the definite article here. You could say le-mango and this sentence can mean "(any) mango has good smell.
The only issue with the translation is that when translating verbatim from H to any western language, an interpretation is required to have the sentence make sense. "For the mango there's a nice smell" simply reads what we all know: Mangoes smell nice...
Why "a" article is needed for "good smell"?? Why "mango has good smell" is incorrect?
Are you asking regarding the translation of this sentence, or in English generally?
You need the article "a" in front of mango in English. Here's an article explaining it: https://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/when-to-use-articles-before-nouns
That depends on whether you are using "mango" as a countable noun or as a mass noun. If mangoes smell good in general and that is the message you are trying to convey, then it's fine to treat it as a mass noun and forego the indefinite article. In fact, saying "a mango smells good" indicates that there is somewhere in the world a mango that smells good. That is not what you're trying to say.
The article you linked gives a similar example: Fruit is on sale.
So, if "Mango smells good" is an acceptable translation, why is "A mango smells good" rejected?
Reyakh. Though sometimes pronounced re-akh (native speakers swallow the y sound).
The other way around, I think: It's always /re-akh/, and /re-yach/ is an anomaly that's fading away. It's the pronunication of Israelies who immigrated from Poland and Russia up until the 30's, their most luminary example (for pronunication jokes) being Shimon Peres. Also you find it in songs from the 50's through mid-70's, because singers were taught to add it on the grounds that hyatus is not nice. https://youtu.be/oOw-NO7VzV4?t=49 (/ya yareyach/: יא ירח, addressing the moon).
Hebrew isn't as strict about word order as English. Both variants are acceptable.
That said, what is this sentence about? Mangos. The mango is the subject. So it makes sense to put the mango first, and the word that modifies the mango (יש) afterwards. But feel free to phrase it in any of these ways for the desired emphasis:
למנגו יש ריח טוב
יש למנגו ריח טוב
ריח טוב יש למנגו
But don't say the following. It makes you sound like Yoda:
ריח טוב למנגו יש