"אין לחם ואין יין."
Translation:There is no bread and there is no wine.
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I said "there isn't any bread or wine" which I think colloquially would be what is said. No one would say "There is no bread and there is no wine" in English. It's too stilted.
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I disagree. The sentence is not "there is no bread or wine" in Hebrew, although such a sentence is valid and has close meaning. It is not the exercise here. The sentence is "there is no bread and no wine", only that should be accepted in this case
You are right, it is too stilted, but it is a literal translation of the sentance and someone might put it in as an answer (it is a correct answer).
Also, you are right about your translation, please use the report button to report the problem.
Sometimes translators don't use a similar phrase to say something in other language. I mean, In Spanish now there are lots of quotes from English, and all about that is because of Television programs. Spanish translator, sometimes, don't use a similar sentence in Spanish but they translate word by word literally... And that is happening right here from Hebrew to English.
Is it correct to say in English "There is no bread and wine" without explicit second "no"?
They would most likely say, "there is no bread OR wine." Saying "and wine" would or could lead someone to think you werent finished speaking...i would respond " and...how much wine did you say?
I agree with you, Brad672136, and I actually speak that way, but (sadly to my language-loving ears) most Americans, at least, would respond exactly as yahkob1 stated.
It would, but saying "and wine" sort of implies that the bread and wine come inherently as one thing (e.g. as a dish)
Yes, but you may want to be explicit and use the second no, for emphasis.
At first I thought it said "אין לכם ואין יין." As in, "You don't have any, and there is no wine." I guess it just takes practice to tell the difference?
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Not really. There is a difference in pronunciation between the two words and the stress is different. לחם is pronounced lékhem and לכם is pronounced lakhém.
My Hebrew professor in college said it is supposed to be pronounced ein (the ay in say and an n) but that most people pronounce it en because ein is too Yiddish.
danny912421 said elsewhere: tsere is pronounced both "e" and "ei" depending on whether you are of Sephardic or Ashkenazi origin. Both pronunciations are considered correct.
The word אין is pronounced "ein" like in the English word "reins". If you were writing with vowels, there would be a tzere (two horizontal dots) under the א.
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Today, I heard לכם. it took a lot of 'thinking', to work it out. Lékhem, not lakhém! So I heard: you have no ..
There's no bread and there's no wine... There's no bread and wine... There isn't bread or wine...
In theory, do i have to repeat "אין" ? I know in Japanese and other languages, you have to repeat some clauses in some cases, so I had to ask to make sure.
Could i say both or one of either or none?:
אין לחם ויין.
או
אין לחם או יין.
- 1430
That is what the sentence means, but it's not precise. אין is repeated twice, so English translation should reflect that. Also, "neither" would need גם in Hebrew.
- 1430
He does say it - ve-ein. You might not be accustomed to the language yet.
In the beginning, using headphones for the audio really helped me to hear it better.