"She wants to eat fish."
Translation:היא רוצָה לאכול דג.
I answered היא רוצה לאוכל את דג. When is it appropriate to use את? I was taught by my former Hebrew teacher that it was used whenever you use a transitive verb, but does that only apply for conjugated verbs?
You use ET for indefinite direct object. for a specific fish.
if it was "The fish"
היא רוצה לאכול את הדג
היא רוצה לאכול דג
if the noun is female, shouldnt the verb be female as well? why does it say אוכל and not אוכלת
The lamed (ל) before the verb turns the verb into the infinitive (to eat). I think it's because of that the female form is not needed.
I just made the same mistake. רוצה is the feminine conjugation and לאכול is the infinitive, so that makes sense.
No, there is no mistake or typo, it is infinitive לאכול it is read ( le echol ) or Cyrillic леэхоль.
In English the word fish is both singular and plural so both "דג " and "דגים " would be a correct translation. However in English the context of the sentence would indicate that she only wanted one fish maybe that has been slightly lost in translation.
I think because the sentence says that she wants to eat fish in general. I does not say that she wants to eat one fish. That is probably the reason why דגים is also correct. -The fish is not specificied-
Fish is used in English for both plural & singular (countable and uncountable). You can say I had a lot of fish for dinner, or I caught fish today. Using the plural, fishes, is generally limited to the activity of fishing OR (less likely) if you have a variety of fish. The same rules apply to many foods: we have a variety of jam (not usually jams), I ate a lot of cake, or: they had a great cake selection (or great selection of cakes). The same applies to fish. You might say I ate a lot of burgers (or strawberries, etc.) tonight, (but you'd say: I ate a lot of fish (not fishes) tonight.
Because the sentence is "she wants to eat fish", not "she wants eat fish". you need a ל before אוכל, because the ל makes the word mean "to eat"
Bret is right but also because only proper names don't need "the" before the direct object, so: wants to eat Mike,
רוצה לאכול את מייק
Wants to eat THE fish, רוצה לאכול את הדג, ... Lamed= ל, is used as a prefix, TO make it "to VERB" , It's not the only prefix. Bet,ב, ("in" is another. As is מ,mem, ("from").
From ebook "COLLOQUIAL HEBREW" page 345: Prepositions Inseparable prepositions In Hebrew the prepositions ‘in/on’ B: ,(letter bet) ,ב ‘to/for’ l’ ל (letter lamed) : and ‘from’ מ (letter mem) mi’ are single letters attached to the word they precede. These are known as ‘inseparable prepositions’ (indicated by an apostrophe in our transliteration): in Tel Aviv b’tel-aviv בתל אביב for a month l’khódesh לחדש from when? mi’matay ממתי
Because it's not a direct object. Also, If you wrote "the fish" you'd need et, but just fish you can't use it. A direct object, is a specific thing. Duolingo אֶת The Hebrew direct object is only strictly direct when it is indefinite, as in:
take a chair - קַח כִּיסֵא take meat - קַח בָּשָׂר When definite (eg הַכִּיסֵא 'the chair'), it is generally introduced by the special preposition אֶת . This is known as the direct object marker. By definition we mean: a. a noun with הַ b. a name c. a definite pronoun
isn't the spelling for 'eat' wrong in the answer!!!! should it not be אוכלת rather than לאכול
The form לאכול is the infinitive, in a form called the infinitive construct if you want to get super technical, and can be translated as "to eat"
ל = to So it's "to eat" you add the lamed for "to", Hebrew has letters that make words like this that go in front of words, another is bet, it makes "in" , i.e. באהבה= in love
Yes, ל means "to, for", but the ל in the infinitive is not the same as placing ל before a verb. It's a preposition and you can't put a preposition before a verb. Don't mix them up!
ל is for
"To" ב adds at or in, etc. There's a list of them.. From I think is mem, מ.
ש= I believe is: that. שאני : That I But I'm learning not native it's just what I've noticed.
I'm not sure if this is an all cases, since I'm learning too... But from the book COLLOQUIAL HEBREW: verb has to agree in number and gender with the subject of the Hebrew sentence (not of the English sentence).
But: From the same book:
The infinitive a Form of the infinitive The infinitive cannot be inflected. Whether one is addressing males or females, one person or many, it is unchanged. The infinitive’s distinguishing mark is a prefixed Lamed ל , לקום thus לקום ‘to get up’ vs get up
לאוכל , אוכל. To eat /eat. .... קום....
Not in present tense. Because the verb, while feminine singular, still doesn't imply the subject. From the verb, you could say "at rotzah" "hi rotzah" or "ani rotzah". You can only leave out the subject because it is implied in future and past tenses.