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  5. "אני שוחֶה וכואב לי."

"אני שוחֶה וכואב לי."

Translation:I am swimming and it hurts.

June 23, 2016



Maybe you should stop swimming :/


Hell Yeah! Get outta pool and go seek a doctor, right?


Can I say, "I swim and it hurts me"?


i said that and got it right


No, that would be "אני שוחֶה וזה מכאיב לי."


It doesn't make grammatical sense that "אני שוחה וכואב לי" would mean "I swim and it hurts me" or "I swim and it hurts" because you have "I" as the only subject stated and then you have two verbs connected by the conjunction "and" which are "swim" and "hurt". That means that if you separate the conjunction, it's "I swim" and "I hurt". And then you have the direct object "to me" at the end which could either be connected to just the last verb, or to both verbs. So the most literal translation is "I swim and hurt me" Meaning either, "I swim me and I hurt me" or "I swim and I hurt me." Swimming is grammatically unable to do the hurting without the use of a pronoun. I really do not like this sentence if it's really the way they say it in Hebrew.


Just to clarify you were referring to the construction of the OP: אני שוחה וזה מכאיב לי


almost, "וזה" is "and it" ( the "ו" is "and", pronounced as ve) "זה" means it, but can also mean this, that, those, and these. I should also add that "זות" is the feminine form of "זה".


Just a small correction: זאת (zot) and זו (zo) are the feminine forms of זה (ze).


Tips and notes? They are found only on the web version of Duolingo.


Where could you find info about the "זו" form? I can't reach any


I said "I swim and hurt myself." and it was not accepted.


I think that implies two separate actions, for example you're swimming (which doesn't hurt) and scrape your arm on a rock (which does). "I swim and it hurts me" means it's the swimming that's causing pain.


אני שוחה וזה כואב לי would be better. :-)


Yes :)

Simple solution to the problems everyone is having. Thanks for this, my gever.


welll that will hurt


Could be in the dead sea. Any cut on your body stings like well you know...


Shouldnt this be translated more to, "I swim and I hurt?" I don't understand where the "it" comes from


Is this right to say "khoev"? Isn't it "koev"?


The addition of the ו /ve/ in front of it changes it to /kh/ (or, more precisely, cancels the effect of head-of-word that changed the /kh/ to /k/ to begin with). That's in formal Hebrew, BTW; in spoken Hebrew we say /vekoev/.


Thank you! I was once fluent when I was a little girl, and this kind of thing keeps throwing me off because somewhere in my brain I knew koev sounded right.


Aren't you anymore ?


This is the second time that I come across this sentence, and I'm still wondering why it's "I swim and it hurts" rather than "I swim and hurts me" .

Where is the "it" in " I swim and ((it)) hurts " ?


"I swim and hurts me" isn't a grammatical English sentence -- the second clause needs a subject, and "it" works as sort of a generic placeholder subject.


I know that..

My problem is that i seem to see that the Hebrew sentence lacks the "it"


Because in Hebrew you don't need "it", you can say כואב לי and the subject remains unspecified. That's probably the point of this exercise.


Is it the act of swimming that hurts (i.e. exertion) or could it be something unrelated like an injury or sickness or hunger or the like that hurts?


Actually the Hebrew sentence subtly suggests that something else causes the hurting, because if it were the swimming it would be a bit more natural to say אני שוחה וזה כואב לי. Not using זה, and still using it in conjunction with "I swim" makes me expect this sentence in a context where it would mean "It hurts despite me swimming".


Thanks, my gever. So, would this work given your context?

למרות שאני שוחה, כואב לי.


Why is the subject "it" assumed? Is this unique to this verb? How would you say, I am swimming and I hurt?


I would also like to know. I had "I swim and hurt myself" but it was marked wrong. How would you say that sentence in Hebrew? And why is it implied in the exercise sentence that something else hurt me?


If you've swam in the dead Sea, you'd not be surprised (as someone else mentioned). It really hurt like salt on a wound (although I think I was in the minority, no one else looked looked they were being abused by salt).


Why is possessive (li) needed here? The sentence already has a pronoun & clearly it's not needed for translation, so why is it needed?


(It's not possessive, it's pronominal indirect object or something...)

In English you can say "it hurts" and leave it to understand from the context who feels the pain. In Hebrew it's strange: you could say זה כואב and not specify the object, like in English, and it would sound fine. Or you can omit the זה, but then it doesn't sound normal to say just כואב. If you add the object it suddenly sounds fine again: כואב לי.


I'm still not sure what happened to the "לי" here, but it is perfectly reasonable to translate the rest as "I am swimming and it hurts me" because in english (and, I'm sure, plenty of other languages) verbs can serve more functions than just as pure verbs. A verb can stand in as a noun as well as a verb (it is called a gerund in that instance), so "it" is the swimming. "I am swimming (verb) and the swimming ("it"; gerund) hurts." Because of the nature of the Hebrew verbal case system, a pronoun of any sort can be superfluous unless context requires you to specify what the "he/she/it/they" is for clarity's sake. In order to say this with greater precision, it would need to say "I am swimming and the swimming hurts," which to those "in the know" ( which isn't me; I know general grammatical structures, but not how Hebrew itself applies them), may very well seem ridiculous.


What's the difference between לכאוב and להכאיב? Is it the same as the difference between to feel pain and to cause pain?

If so, why is כואב לי ("it feels me pain" [?!]) used here instead of מכאיב לי ("it causes me pain")?


I said "I swim and hurt myself."


But that's not what that sentence means.


To be sure: is כואב pronounced here khoev instead of koev because of the initial vav (ו)?


I wrote the same as Patar595: I swim and I hurt, although my firs though was:I swim and it hurts me. But I still wonder: Is it obvious that the pain is caused by the swimming or could the swimming be one and the hurting just stating another fact, example: My hart was broken because of all the bad news, but I still went to the beach, and now I am svimming and hurting......Or my foot was injured cause I stepped on a piece of broken glas as I entered the water...swimming and hurting...


Shocheh or socheh?



Aní soché ve-ko'év li


אני שוחה וזה כואב אותי!

Duo's sentence seems terrible. Why is it not written the way I wrote it?

Do they say it Duo's way for real?


Not sure which part seems "terrible" to you, but it's definitely כואב לי and not כואב אותי.

There is no need for אז because the sentence implies that it hurts while I swim, not afterwards.


Can this mean I am swimming and hurt myself? It seems like the "hurt" verb is done by the subject, not by the swimming. Do I misunderstand?


You can say that כואב ל is "to ache" - it doesn't imply any doer, just a state.

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