that's "co powiedział". The original sentence sounds more as if you didn't understand because he was muttering or something, and not that you didn't understand the meaning.
Thanks for the clarification, i tought that "what he said" and "what he was saying" were interchangeable/synonymous.
In English, a comma is used when a subordinate clause begins a sentence but is not necessary when a subordinate clause is at the end.
In English, a comma would not be necessary, can someone help me to understand why a comma would be used in Polish?
Why can't I use "I was not understanding..."? Rozumieć is the imperfective form, isn't it?
I don't think "understand" is really used in the Continous aspect in English.
Thank you Jellei. I am not a native english speaker myself, so I was not aware of that fact.
Why "I did not understand, what was he saying" not accepted? Judging by the coma I would say it's even more correct.
But the interpunction is not considered by the system when accepting answers. The thing is that "what was he saying" is wrong in English in this context. If it was a question of its own, it would of course be the only right answer. But in "I did not understand, what... you need to get back to the declarative word order, "I did not know what he was saying."
Well than the coma is not only unneeded, it is misleading and wrong in the English sentence.
I don't see a comma in English translation though? In Polish, so called 'comma slice' is actually mandatory, it's ungrammatical to NOT use it, but English translation should use the English interpunction rules.
Nie. Wielu uczących się tak zrobi, ale skoro to nie jest pytanie, tylko zdanie podrzędne - szyk wyrazów powinien być 'normalny'.
It could easily be "zrozumiałem" as well. "Nie rozumiałem" sounds like "I wasn't understanding", which suggests that he was talking either in a very complicated way (difficult topic, perhaps?) or perhaps that he was simply mumbling. "Nie zrozumiałem" sounds more like "I didn't understand his message, what he meant".
Shouldn't 'rozumiałem' here be translated as "I was not understanding," because of it being an imperfective verb?
Not necessarily. Perfective/imperfective in Polish doesn't directly translate to simple past tense vs. past continuous in English. The understanding is based on context, not A to A translation.
English doesn't use perfective/imperfective aspect verbs, and Polish doesn't use past continuous, past perfect, pluperfect, etc.