As English is not my native language, I have certainly answered that question some time ago ;D Just by practicing and listening to a lot of English media I got used to the sound of the language and therefore to the sound of the words (although sometimes I cannot guess how a word is pronounced! English is certainly weird, but, let's say the truth, every language is weird depending on who says it.)
Had I followed that reasoning I would have answered myself. Thanks, however, for replying :)
I think truelefty intended to ask if there are any specific patterns one can use to derive Hebrew infinitives, such as those often described by CVCV templates for Semitic languages (e.g., CiCaaC, CuCuC, maCCaC for the K-T-B root in Arabic, which yield, respectively, 'kitaab', 'kutub', and 'maktab' -- "book", "books", and "office").
Yes. The German course is the same. Everytime you select an individual word it pronounces it. It would be helpful to have that constant audio availabilty for this Hebrew course as well, especially since not all sentences come with audio. I am always coming to the comments to see pronunciation :)
In Hebrew פירות does not imply more than one kind. It's a bit hard to be convinced in this, since if you have three apples, say, we'd usually say תפוחים.... But consider the sentence על עץ התפוחים שלי יש הרבה פירות "there is a lot of fruit on my apple tree". Also, if I have in the bag two apples and one orange, I'd say יש לי שלושה פירות.
Interesting... I wonder if the process that led English (or it's ancestor) to use "to" for infinitives is not the same process that led Hebrew (or it's ancestor) to use ל... For instance, it may have started with verbs of movement, where "to" would be a natural preposition: "I go to the field" -> "I go to plow", and then by initially-false analogy, "I want to plow". Same could have happened in Hebrew, but that's prehistory.