"You have the wine."
Translation:יש לךָ את היין.
I thought you do not use the accusative particle את with יש and אין because it is not a verb. I was never taught this in any Hebrew class I've taken, biblical or modern.
This is an example of prescriptive grammar. Any Hebrew speaker today would use "את" after "יש/אין". It's so widespread that most people would say that the omission is ungrammatical.
Thank you. I went and consulted my old copy of Modern Hebrew: An Essential Grammar and it said that colloquial Hebrew uses את in the way used here as well. So am I right in thinking then that while this is not grammatically correct, it is the popular usage?
Sometimes you do. This sentence for example, maybe not the first way I would chose to describe the situation, but is grammatical and would be understood. I would say: היין אצלך.
So, the את is there because "the wine" is definite (the wine, not just any wine)?