Why does the spelling of fruit change from פרי to פירות as it goes from singular to plural?
It's slightly irregular.
Plural: peirot (pronounced perot by most Israelis, since the vowels tzeirei and segol have merged).
I always thought it was because without the yud in the plural form (פירות) the word would be indistinguishable from cows (פרות).
Something's wrong with the right-to-left ordering: the word I was asked to make a choice for should have been the last word in the sentence but it was shown as the first.
please report it in the "report a problem" section, it will be seen by the relevant people
Would הפרי best be translated a piece of fruit if it is definite and in the singular?
I don't quite understand, but "fruit" is both a singular and collective noun in English:
We eat a fruit - אנחנו אוכלים פרי
We eat fruit - אנחנו אוכלים פירות
We eat several different fruits - אנחנו אוכלים כמה פירות שונים
Well it's הפירות so how could it be the fruit (singular) if it's the fruits (plural), not clear.
The fruit = הפרי
The fruit = (הפירות (מספר פירות ביחד
The fruits = (הפירות (כמה פירות שונים
Its not feminine you at, it's et.
It's used before a definite direct object.
For some reason, the prompt for this had the underline at the beginning of the sentence (far right instead of far left). I think they updated something and broke it.
It seems to meet like all three answers would be grammatically correct, although they would have slightly different meanings. Since they dont give the desired English, how is a student to know what they are wanting? Or am i missing something?
Either way is acceptable. When learning, I think it's probably better to use fruit rather than "piece of fruit" because there's no Hebrew word that means "piece" in the sentence. It's just that the word fruit in English works differently than the word פרי in Hebrew
One of the word blocks was "fem." and I wanted to see if putting it in front of "them" would be correct bc הן is feminine "they." It was wrong bc of that. Should it have been correct?