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  5. "התפוח שייך לי."

"התפוח שייך לי."

Translation:The apple belongs to me.

June 23, 2016



I'm not sure there is any difference between the phrases "the apple belongs to me" and "the apple is mine". The also seems like an acceptable translation, since "mine" is the possessive form of "me".


שייך = belongs

the apple belongs to me = התפוח שייך לי

the apple is mine = התפוח שלי


התפוח של' ?יWouldn't this be 'my apple


the apple is mine התפוח הוא שלי


התפוח של = the apple of

של + לי = שלי = of me


אם כבר לנתח אז עד הסוף, ש+ל+אני (;


It is a bit far fetched to make this distinction. "The apple is mine" is a correct translation of התפוח שייך לי


It really feels like six of one half a dozen of the other. Family gets "of me"/mine, and what else please? Animated objects? Feelings? I can't find a good answer. In English.. that's my phone, whose phone is it? It's mine. They're conveying the same message. My mom. My book, my cat, whose is X? It's all mine ,... Wahahahahhha


Why is does it use the caf Sofite


Kaf sofit means final kaf, so the clue's in the name: it's the form that is used at the end of a word.


I mean why is it used here? Doesn't that usually mean you?


It's part of the word. No connection to "you".


The correct translation for "the apple is mine" is "התפוח הוא שלי" or "התפוח שלי".


One of the tiresome aspects of DuoLingo is that it is not consistent in its translations into English. Sometimes, the program insists on sticking close to a literal translation, and other times, it accepts a freer but still accurate translation. Sometimes, DuoLingo even rejects a literal translation in favor of a freer translation.


The general rule is that if there is a literal translation that doesn't sound strange, use it. There is no need to paraphrase. This is the case here: "the apple belongs to me" is perfectly good English, and changing it to "the apple is mine" is unnecessary, since the equivalent to that is different in Hebrew (התפוח שלי).

If the literal translation sounds strange and ungrammatical, usually it is accepted, but a more natural slightly different translation is offered as the main translation. For example:


If you write "I found", it will be correct, but the main translation will be "I've found it".


I realize that your statement is DuoLingo's general policy, but that policy is not consistently followed in every language. Sometimes the students are right.

The upshot is that there seem to be more discussions on why a translation into perfectly good English is considered "wrong" than discussions about real mistakes in foreign language usage.


We only take responsibility for the Hebrew course, and try to take onboard users' comments.


Can you take responsibility for female plural ducks? Because the word doesn't exist according to reverso, Google translate, Hebrew Wikipedia & that popular Hebrew to Hebrew dictionary .


If you're talking about ברווזות, I can see why dictionaries would miss it (it's generated in two steps from the base word), but it's perfect Hebrew, would be understood by every Hebrew speaker, and potentially used by some...


"- said Adam and took it from Eve's hands"


Whats the difference between התפוח שלי and התפוח שייך לי? Specifically, in what context would you use one over the other? They seem to say the same thing albeit in a different manner.


If I'm not mistaken, התפוח שלי would be "my apple" while התפוח שייך לי is "the apple belongs to me."


Why is there a double yud in שייך? Cannot it be שיך as in the infinitive?


When writing with niqqud it's just one yud. Without niqqud, yud as a consonant is written with double yud.


I can't seem to understand how to pronounce שייך and שייכ correctly. Can someone type it out?


Whenever the kaf, mem, nun, pe, or tsadiq is in the last place, you use the final (sofit) form. With niqqud, it's שַׁיָּךְ or שַׁיֶּכֶת‏. Shayyakh' or shayyekhet.


Shayach - roll the Ch. Btw, כ and ך are sister letters. ך only comes at the end of a word. כ never comes at the end of a word. Therefore the word is שייך ( not שייכ).


This actually sounds like "the apple belongs to me"...and that is the correct answer, but its funny how that worked out.


My question is: why the double yud in שייך?


I think you have the option of writing the second yod, like color/colour, or traveler/traveller.


No, the double yod is obligatory when writing without niqqud and it’s a single yod when writing with niqqud.


Why is ough, oh, o. Ou, all the same sound ? Why is it sometimes ק או כ? ו או ב?

צ as z or c in English, Or jacket with a z? ז'ָקֵט, D.J. is די ג'יי ... ?


Why is "the Apple is mine" not accepted?


It usually saves time and effort to read the preceding posts before posing a question, Friend Matt22228.


why the double yod in שייך


It shows there is a consonantal y sound, rather than just being the vowel i. Shayakh instead of shikh.


"The apple is mine" should be accepted. I get that they're trying to teach us שייך = "belongs to" but this other translation is still correct.


If you rent an apartment, you might find yourself explaining to someone "yes, this house is mine, but it doesn't belong to me". It's a nuance, and it's yet harder to make this distinction with apples - but since both Hebrew and English has exact parallels for this difference, and both forms are very useful, it makes sense to insist on learning both.


Someone want to explain the difference between "The Apple belongs to me" and "The apple is mine?"


התפוח שייך לי - the apple belongs to me

התפוח שלי - the apple is mine (or my apple)

So, when you want to say "belong" you need to use שייך.

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