Yes. The English should be "We have wine and beer." I cant think of a single time in the USA that I have ever heard the word 'wines'. It is just like the word 'fish'. Nobody here says 'fishes' because it is 'incorrect'.
Perhaps it would be correct to say 'wines' when saying something in a comparitive sentence like this 'We have many different kinds of wines to choose from", but still that does not sound fully correct, and "We have many different kinds of wine to choose from" does not sound incorrect here. I doubt anyone would correct another person in the USA if they said 'wine' in this example.
If someone tries to correct you for saying /ve-/ when you "should" say /u-/, ask for signature, you've just met the celebrity http://go/wiki/Avshalom_Kor (-:
Seriously though, if one is inclined to correct her conversation mate for this "mistake" they wouldn't be able to make any conversation at all in Israel. I was surprised to read in this discussion Hebrew speakers who claim they say /u-/. I'd like to talk with them one day (-:
Yes, it's irregular. Someone posted a very helpful chart in a discussion recently: https://www.safa-ivrit.org/irregulars/pluralfm.php These are all masculine words with a feminine plural and: https://www.safa-ivrit.org/irregulars/pluralml.php. These are all feminine words with a masculine plural.
Not as far as I know. I saw some sentences while practicing (can't remember them at the moment) which had these irregular plurals, but then the adjective stayed in the original gender. So I guess we really have to learn which plurals are irregular, otherwise we'll mess up the adjectives ;)
In ובירות, is there variability regarding whether the ב is pronounced as B or V? By the way, I would identify בירות as a recognizedly non-Semitic loan word; a concept of interest in terms of non-Semitic loanword ק being potentially contrastively phonemic with respect to Semitic ק in Hebrew accents or dialects preserving ק as a uvular stop. Non-Semitic K usually becomes ק in Hebrew rather than כ
it is a non-semetic loaned word. when it comes to loaned-words it should sound like the original so bi-ra (not vi-ra). there is a rule in hebrwe that when words start with the letters ב,כ,פ it will alweys be with Dagesh (one type of Niqqud) that makes them sound like B,K,P, and when these letters are not the first letter of the word it depends on the word itself. but as I said, in loaned-words it is like the original.
In Hebrew, is the word יינות equivalent to "wines" in English? I.e. Is it used more to describe varieties in the plural.? The singular in English- I.e. "a wine" is fairly ambiguous and could mean either a glass of wine, or a particular variety/brand/vintage depending on context. Is that also the same in Hebrew? Examples: "we have a selection of wines from which to choose."-plural "I had two glasses of wine" singular but qualified. Beer in English can easily be used in both ways, where the plural usually implies a plurality of bottles or glasses (at least in Australia).
Attemtping an explanation, but it's an amateur's guess. The transition from /a/ to /i/ is phisiologically hard, the tongue has to move a lot. It's bearable when the /a/ has the stress, in /ya-in/. The pluralization takes the stress away to the /not/. Then the transition is "smoothed" to /ei/.
Well, in classical Hebrew a plosive בּ [b] always was spirantised to its allophone בֿ [v], if the conjunction וְ־ preceeded it. As בִּ֫ירָה is an Indo-germanic loan word cognate to beer and in these languages [b] and [v] contrast (like a bet is not a vet), they resist this change, as the sound has become a phoneme of its own, the same as you do say הַפִ֫יזִיקָה physics, and not [hapiziqa], although this form should be expected, because the פ is mapped to the European, originally Greek sound. Notice that בּ is still a labial, so and can become here וּ־ [u] too.
In English you could also say "we have wine and beer" it is unlikely that the plural would be used. In fact, it seems convoluted, like you're trying to stress that you have more than one brand (why? Who doesn't?), though the meaning is the same. The singular translation should be accepted.
It's an exercise. In English both wine and beer sound off, if not wrong in the plural, but not in Hebrew. It's an exercise to help us understand how Hebrew works. However, if you have a genuine complaint, you can always report it by pressing the small flag. This forum is not monitored by the contributors of the course, but is used for questions and discussions.
Please check this out. None of the comments relate to the actual statement which according to the speaker is "We have wines and cakes". The problem is that the Hebrew for "and cakes," is missing. The Hebrew choice ועגיות is not given. What appears is בעגיות. Please review this exercise. By the way, omissions like this have occurred a number of times.
What are you talking about? It says "beers" not "cakes"! בירות. There are no cakes mentioned. And also עוגיות would be cookies and עוגות would be cakes.
I don't understand, though, where was ועוגיות replaced by בעוגיות? Do you mean multiple choice? Or word bank? Both are randomly generated by the system.
I think it depends on context. If someone's welcoming you to their barbecue, they may offer you a drink, saying "we have wine and beer." But if it's the owner of a liquor store explaining their offerings for purchase, they could say "we have wines and beers" as in, "we have wines and beers from many regions." In addition-- this would apply to beer only; not wine, which is in 'glasses'-- but "beers" is used to refer to to quantity-- "how much did I drink? I had three beers."