To the boy, there is an apple. I wrote this and it was counted wrong. Of course, this would mean in English that it's the boys opinion that an apple exists. Literal translation makes no sense.
Hey, read both comments. Shouldn't Duolingo accept either "a boy" or "the boy" because without vowel points/more context the vocalization is ambiguous? My background is Biblical Hebrew so I am not sure if there is some indicator in Modern Hebrew that resolves this ambiguity?
Well... I guess in this sentence the audio gives you the vocalization! So that settles it, but my question still stands if there was no audio?
Correct, also they mention in Tips and notes that nikkud may help to differenciate, but there is also a lack of it in this exercise, so both should be correct in abscense of audio.
In real life cases, you would be able to differentiate by surrounding context whether you were talking about a specific boy or a general one. Without context, the definite would be the assumption in Hebrew.
THANK YOU! These really need more transliterations so I can understand the grammar structure better.
So, if לילד is pronounced 'leyeled' it literally means 'to a boy' and if it is pronounced 'layeled' it means 'to the boy'?
That would use a different preposition, and, most of the time, word order:
יש תפוח בשביל הילד
"yesh tapuach bishvil hayeled"
Lit. "there is an apple for (the sake of) the boy
To create the possesive, the word יש takes the preposition ל. Without the ל you don't have posession. What you wrote is "the boy there is an apple"
Can you order the words "יש לילד תפוח", as with a pronoun in "יש לי תפוח"?
And conversely, is "לי יש תפוח" an incorrect word order?
Both of your suggestions are acceptable. לי יש תפוח is perhaps a little less natural, but it's still perfect Hebrew.
These word order differences are about the nuances of your meaning. If you mean "I have an apple (and you don't)" - לי יש תפוח is the way to go. Whatever you put first gets emphasis in your meaning.
Why is "The child has an apple." wrong? Doesn't ילד mean boy or child?
The word you place first in the sentence has emphasis. So if you want the emphasis to be on the boy, use לילד יש and if you want the emphasis to be on the "having" use יש לילד
In the hint it says: "To the boy" but when I type in: "To the boy there's an apple" I'm the one who doesn't know how to translate properly........
I agree that it is a problem that the hints for possession don't show up with this word order. But whenever you have a construction of יש ל it always indicates "have" - you can't translate literally.
It's a tense issue in English. "Has got" implies the action and that he might not have an apple in the past, whereas "has" simply means a present state.
No, that's not the case. Americans say "has gotten" for the past perfect and Brits avoid "has got". There's no ambiguity here.
1)Can we saw יש לילד תפוח ? 2)By the way, he says "la yeled" not "le yeled" , but the answer does not contain "the" inorder to select it. Only "A" is provided, so I had to select "A" and write "A boy has an apple" .
Same structure & same particules as in Arabic. I then instinctively traslated it as: "To the boy belongs an apple" said wrong but I think said this way, it's more reflecting the way it is said in Hebrew. No ?
Your way of translating this sentence certainly maintains the word order structure in Hebrew. But in English "belongs" in this sense indicates ownership, which is not the same as the way this possession works - because it can be temporary as well as permanent. For example, if I wanted to say "the boy has my apple", I would say לילד יש התפוח שלי. The verb "have" in English is closer to the range of meanings of יש ל than the verb "belong".
There's no action (giving) here: it should be "The boy has an apple".
Your sentence would be translated as "תן תפוח לילד".
Is everyone getting corrected & tips in mistakes? I see no tips. Grumble
Interesting that it counts it correct whether I translate it as "a boy" or "the boy."