"The boy has an apple."
Translation:לילד יש תפוח.
When using the possessives יש/אין to mean "to have", you need to add the preposition -ל before the owner. It makes sense if you remember that without this preposition יש means "there is".
There is an apple = יש תפוח
The boy has an apple = לילד יש תפוח (literally, something like "To the boy there is an apple").
It would be written the same way, but pronounced differently: le'yeled yesh = a boy has, la'yeled yesh = the boy has.
Also, practically speaking, you wouldn't get this word order for an indefinite situation. So a boy has... would be
Do order of the words make difference here?? If I say "יש חפוח לילד" would it considered wrong or different meaning??
It would be considered either wrong or stilted. Stilted if you mean to say "the boy has an apple" and wrong if you mean to say "there is an apple for the boy". Your good options for word order are יש לילד תפוח and לילד יש תפוח
Yes, the word you place at the start of the sentence gets more emphasis.
So לילד יש תפוח is like "the boy, has an apple".
You would say לילד יש תפוח, אבל לילדה יש תפוז "the boy has an apple, but the girl has an orange" (in English we can represent emphasis by changing the intonation, and in writing, using italics).
Likewise, you would say:
אין להם אוכל, אבל לי יש
They don't have food, but I do.
Thanks! Sounds like the structure doesn't change the literal translation but changes the implication of the sentence.
How would you say "A boy has an apple" (e.g. if you are describing a scene)? Would that also be לילד יש תפוח?
It is better to say יש לילד תפוח for "a boy has an apple" because in the indefinite, you wouldn't emphasize the possessor - pronounced "yesh l'yeled tapuach"
In all possessive sentences duo keeps rejecting answers with order like יש משהו למישהו. Is it actually wrong?
The boy has an apple right ?-- לילד יש תפוח men have milk--- לגברים יש חלב I got an error message when I translated it as "the men have milk" So what is the error please. Could someone explain it please,
In both cases, you need the audio in these contextless sentences to determine whether the definite article is being used. If the prefix is "la" it's definite. If it's "l'" or "li" (a grammatical formation for ease of pronunciation which happens when the main word's first vowel is shewa), then it is indefinite.
So if it's "layeled" - it's "the boy" - and if it's "Lig'varim" it's "men", not "the men"