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  5. "אין לו תפוח."

"אין לו תפוח."

Translation:He does not have an apple.

June 29, 2016



Like if you're Jewish but don't speak Hebrew so you're taking this course as a result.


For those confused: he is telling Jewish people who don't speak Hebrew to give him a "like."


How would you say "there aren't any apples"? Why does לו here mean "to him" and not "no"? (Unless that's spelled differently... I can't remember!)


אין תפוחים

No is spelled לא, but sounds the same

You would not say אין לא תפוחים.


I made that mistake (no excuses) but I was not marked wrong or typo. IMO, I should have been.


Same here. I reported it.

[deactivated user]

    Just wondering why "He does not have any apple" is considered wrong. Disclaimer: I am not a native English speaker.


    It's okay to say "He doesn't have any apples." But "any" doesn't work with the singular "apple" in English, only with the plural "apples."


    "He doesn't have any apple" is putting an emphasis, it's like saying he doesn't have apples AT ALL.

    In Hebrew you would add the word "כלל", so it would be:"אין לו תפוחים (ב)כלל"

    [deactivated user]

      Thanks. I think I understand your point. Yet I still tend to consider "He does not have an apple" equivalent to "He doesn't have any apple". None is..none! :o) Unless you want to give a different meaning, such as "He does not have ONE apple", meaning he's got MANY.


      It sounds unnatural in English. You can say "he doesn't have any apples" but that's plural and the Hebrew sentence is just about one apple.


      "He does not have an apple" means the same as "He does not have any apples", except the second sentence is emphasised (stronger).

      "He does not have one apple" means he has any number of apples except one, maybe none, maybe two or more. In English "a"/"an" and "one" are not interchangeable, even though they are translated to the same word in many other languages.


      I think you are right. This meaning can be conveyed with the right emphasis on the word תפוח. Still, for the context of this course, I'm not sure it should be accepted, since the usual way to convey that meaning is different.


      They tricked me - as I had just finished lesson 1, I didn't look closely and see that "lo" was not spelled with an aleph ... However, the translation I received upon correction was "He's no apple." Really!? What kind of a translation would that be? "He does not have an apple" certainly makes more sense. I have reported "He's no apple"...


      It's a programming mistake. It's supposed to be "He has no apple" but the algorithm incorrectly contracts it. The moderators have no power to change it, only the programmers and they have already known about this issue for years.


      It's okay. Eve will share hers.


      I wrote אין לא תפוח. and he accepted it.

      I hear "lo" but shouldn't sound more like "lu"?


      I believe לא and לו are both pronounced the same: "lo". :-)

      Forvo pronunciations: לו / לא


      יעורה ארה כרצי


      לנו and לך this might sound stupid, but what is the difference between them? I don't get it


      It's 'we' and 'you' have/don't have. Think of אנחנו (we) for לנו...

      Possession in Hebrew is like saying "there exists (יש) at me (לי) something" for "I have something". So you need a different ל + pronoun or ל + noun depending on who has the thing.


      אין לה תפוח is what is written in the lesson, not he, which would be "lo"לו


      I think that reporting a problem with the audio or my non Hebrew keyboard is falling on deaf ears, so I will find another site.


      no computer voice


      Ein lo tapuakh.

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