Just wondering why "He does not have any apple" is considered wrong. Disclaimer: I am not a native English speaker.
Thanks. I think I understand your point. Yet I still tend to consider "He does not have an apple" equivalent to "He doesn't have any apple". None is..none! :o) Unless you want to give a different meaning, such as "He does not have ONE apple", meaning he's got MANY.
"He does not have an apple" means the same as "He does not have any apples", except the second sentence is emphasised (stronger).
"He does not have one apple" means he has any number of apples except one, maybe none, maybe two or more. In English "a"/"an" and "one" are not interchangeable, even though they are translated to the same word in many other languages.
They tricked me - as I had just finished lesson 1, I didn't look closely and see that "lo" was not spelled with an aleph ... However, the translation I received upon correction was "He's no apple." Really!? What kind of a translation would that be? "He does not have an apple" certainly makes more sense. I have reported "He's no apple"...