Translation:Between me and you, I'm eating all the chocolate.
Interesting. That's literally how some people express the same thing in Arabic too. "beini ubeinak". It's funny when they say that on TV even though they know it's gonna be broadcasted. Thank you :)
Yes, but not necessarily. It could mean "if we're the only ones there". Like it can in English IIRC
No. Using it that way would sound very awkward. I’d translate this as ‘between the two of us’.
Literally it means: "to-between-you"(masculine singular) - "ל-בינ-ך".
In Hebrew we say: "between me to between you" if you translate it literally
You can also say "בינינו" which means between us, and is much more simple
The Bible seems to use ו rather than ל (like English) in the opening of Genesis: "בֵּין הָאוֹר וּבֵין הַחֹשֶׁךְ". Is that an obsolete usage, or is it acceptable in modern Hebrew, or does it mean something different?
There are four forms, they consist of either using ו or ל, and for each, either having the second בין or not.
All are valid, there are different opinions on which is best.
Apparently we are all wrong. This isn't a phrase I use (normally I'd say just between the two of us, or don't tell anyone...) I wonder if it's because it goes against what we normally think of when to use I vs me?
Oxford dictionary: In standard English, it's grammatically correct to say 'between you and me' and incorrect to say 'between you and I'. The reason for this is that a preposition such as between should be followed by an objective pronoun (such as me, him, her, and us) rather than a subjective pronoun (such as I, he, she, and we).
The short answer is that the speaker is using the subjective pronoun I after a preposition, rather than the objective me, and modern English grammar dictates that pronouns that follow a preposition such as between should be objective ones (me, you, us, him/her, it, them).
Because I'm in the app and therefore can't edit: http://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/between-you-and-me?page=1
That's exactly what I was thinking. It would be l" because you wouldn't say me eat all the chocolate.
No, "between you and I" is used incorrectly a lot (like "I was laying down" instead of "lying down".) The correct grammatical use is "Between you and me."
So shouldn't "the two of us" be accepted here? That's literally the same meaning as "me and you "
It is the same meaning, but it doesn't translate, it's a different phrase.
It’s not the same meaning in all contexts. (And, this being Duolingo, there is no context.) “The two of us” could also mean “me and him” or “me and her”.
Why is the first word pronounced "beini" and the second "benekha" instead of "beinekha".
Is there any way to differentiate it from ben (son)?