"Sört kérek szépen."
Translation:I would like beer, please.
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What exactly does "szépen" mean? I thought it was an adverb of intensity like in thank you very much = köszönöm szépen.
I had the same idea, as well as 'Kérek' and 'Kérni', are they like different conjugating verb of time(present/future) or person(like first/third/etc)? I'm confused
Of time. So you can say: I asked - kértem, I ask - kérek, I will ask - kérni fogok / kérek (majd).
You can say that. The indefinite article is not needed as often as it is in English, and you can translate it either wall.
Ez sör = This is a beer or This is beer.
We prefer to use "egy sört kérnék" (i'd like to 'ask' a beer -> i'd like a beer please) rather than "sört kérek szépen" (a beer would be please). Or something like that :) If you are in a bar or in a pub etc it is allowed you to say "egy sör lesz, köszi" (a beer please, thanks), (lesz=will be)
I learn by trying to decode the grammar and learn vocabulary alongside, does this sentence work like this?
sör means beer, adding the t to the end makes it accusative, kérek is the polite form of to want akarok, somewhere between i want and i would like. and lastly, szepen as an intensifier to make the kérek part both stronger and politer
Yes, but the base of kérek means to ask . So [I ask for a beer kindly in a polite form] which becomes "I would like a beer please." or "I would like beer please."
I said, "I would very much like some beer," because when I moved the cursor over 'szépen', one of the English translations was 'very much'. But Duo marked my translation as incorrect. I understand why the actual translation is correct, but why was mine incorrect? Maybe because of the indefinite article 'some' that I inserted. Should I have said 'a beer' instead? I guess I was thinking of 'beer' as a liquid/fluid, which in English, at least, is treated as non-countable. But probably Duo meant 'beer' the beverage.
In this construction with "I would like...", "szepen" becomes "please".
"I would like beer please" . or "I would like a beer please"
In another kind of sentence, it could mean "very much". Here it is making the verb very polite.
Every hint is not for every sentence. Pick the best option to fit each sentence, just as you might from a dictionary. Sometimes the hints don't even cover all the meanings and you might have to look in a dictionary. It can mean "kindly, beautifully, nicely" "köszönöm szépen" means "Thank you kindly", but it is translated to the more common"Thank you very much"
You could try reporting it, but I am not sure if they will accept it.
Can I use akarok in place of kerek since they both mean I want? Or what's the difference
"Kérek is a polite form of "I ask" so "I ask in a polite form" becomes "I would like..." Just as "I want to ask" using the polite form of want and the infinitive of ask would technically mean "I would like to ask for...", but it is translated to the more common "I would like..." , so out in the world you could use "akarok kerni" also. Let them teach you the two. Notice that they added "szépen" to make "kérek" even more polite, perhaps since they omitted the buffer of "wanting to ask" which is a step more polite than just straight "asking".
No, I don't think so.
1958
I would like to have beer please. was not accepted. Isn't this the way to express this request in English. If not, where's the difference?