Be careful what you ask for!
Hungarian has more than enough noun cases.... none of this piddly four-to-six cases of Germanic or Slavic!
Heh don't worry about it - my mother tongue has an inordinate number of cases with distinct meanings, so I'm used to speaking languages with lots of cases.
8 cases in Sanskrit and such is impressive but Hungarian has 18 singular, 18 plural, plus 6 singular possessive cases and 6 plural, for a total of 48 (though most nouns don't have an essive-modal case for either sg or pl so the effective total is 46). No language in the world has more. :)
You shouldn't count cases separately for singular and plural.
Otherwise you might as well say that German has sixteen cases instead of four, because it also has three genders in the singular.
Also, https://www.quora.com/Which-languages-have-the-most-cases/answer/Thomas-Wier?srid=uvG6 claims that Tsez has 252 cases - even 48 is not even close to that number.
That's true about the singular/plural, but Tsez only has 252 cases if you count case combinations and dialectical cases. It doesn't have very many distinct cases in the standard tongue. If you count agglutination, Hungarian has 1176 forms for each noun (though most aren't used because their meaning is strange).
Do you work with Wycliffe? I love what you all do! Although Hungarian does have many cases in my opinion they're easier than cases in Greek or many other languages because there is no gender and you don't have to learn a completely new structure for the plural :P
I do not, though I have heard of them. I chose this name partly because of my interest in history (particularly ancient and medieval) and I've studied Wycliffe's teachings and lament the fact that he was killed by the catholic church for them, partly because I like anonymity online, partly because I like middle English (which is what his translation of the Bible was in), and partly out of distaste for the catholic church, especially in the middle ages (no offense to catholics, I just don't like the church's teachings or dark deeds). I'm not religious, but I was raised Lutheran at first, then non-denominational Christian.
For the matter, Sanskrit has 24 cases (three genders). ;) No, my mother tongue is Tamil, which only has 8 cases formally, but secretly has at least 3903fj943 more (more like 16). Admittedly not as much as Hungarian, but still more than most.
I think this question is quite misleading and gives you the wrong impression that using this without the verb ('kérek') is acceptable. The translation is gramatically correct however this is considered quite rude in a lot of formal situations, especially if you are ordering in a bar or a restaurant and the bartender is asking back because he has not understand your order. If you want to express disgust or arrogance towards the waiter then it is fine of course :)
Given a certain context this might be acceptable. If you are among friends and you're asking a cup of water then your friend might not understand it and asks back "Mit? Vizet?" Then you can say "Igen, vizet" without guilty conscience :)
Putting the word 'kérek' at the end changes everything. If you are getting better at hungarian you might be able to identify the situations where it can be omitted. But I do not think a beginner course should deal with this.
Víz is the nominative (subject) form of the noun and vizet is the accusative (direct object) form. I assume this sentence would be a response to "Would you like to drink water?" and your answer is "Yes, I would like to drink water". Or simply, "Yes, water."
So, you would use "Igen, víz!" if you were taking orders from water (à la "Yes, sir!")?
(And to people looking for cognates to other Uralic languages, see Finnish vesi).
It would be rather impolite. But when you find a bottle, and your friend asks you if there is something ("van benne valami?"), you may reply "igen, víz!"
Actually, I believe this answer is appropriate for a question already suggesting water, like "I see you drive so you would just want some water, wouldn't you?" "Yes, water."
You are perfectly right. The key, as you already stated, is that the question is already suggesting water. Kalitan's question can also be correct if "Would you like to drink water?" is asked in a way that you are interested in whether I want to drink water and not soda or anything else. But if this question is asked so the one asking is interested in whether the one asked simply wants to drink some water it can be answered with just saying "Igen." (Yes.) I hope I was able to help.
Not really, in a real situation you can ask "Would you like to drink something?" and the answer is "Yes, water!" So the question is about wanting to drink or not.
"It is water" means "Ez víz". But "I ask for water" means "Én kérek vizet". The sentence "Én kérek víz" is not really meaningful.
That's right! And not just a paltry four cases or so like German. Hungarian has over a dozen!
why is this accusative,accusative is when a noun is being acted upon,what is this being acted upon by
I believe the creators meant this sentence as a reply to a question like "You drive, so you want water instead of beer, don't you?" "Yes, water!" - or something like that.
so the accusative is only used for a noun which is no longer the subject because there was another noun before it?
Nominative is an inherent attribute of the subject. If a noun is not in nominative, then it is not the subject. But the order of the nouns is irrelevant - you can say 'Vizet én kérek.' ('I would like water.' ), where the object ('vizet') actually preceeds the subject ('én').