Is there i difference between - I (masc.) read and - I (fem.) read?
Like ruah/rueh and okhel/okheleth?
Can anyone logically explain to me how the verb for "to call" and the verb for "to read" are the same verb? I understand other ones like שומר which is to keep and to guard. Those seem like similar processes. Calling and reading don't seem similar to me. Does anyone have any insight?
edit: wrong word.
The duality of the word goes all the way back to Biblical Hebrew. At a guess, it's probably because the ancient Hebrew conception of "reading" was less a guy sitting at home with a book, and more someone reading something to other people, which itself is probably an artifact of limited literacy.
But that's admittedly a guess, I don't have a scholarly background in Biblical Hebrew, and my modern Hebrew's even weaker.
Minor edit to remove some redundancies.
I actually don't care if you are correct. This is the answer I was looking for: a way to conceptualize the word and understand its dual meaning. Thank you!
First, Maybe you meant to say that שומר is both "keeping" and "guarding". דואג is niether of them, it can be translated to "worried" or "taking care (of)". Now, about your question: I don't think that there is a logical explenation, we're just used to it. I, as a native speaker of Hebrew, do not understand why the word "right" is both ימין and נכון, or why "to play" is both לשחק and לנגן. Maybe you can help me understand. ;-)
To add to the question of to read and to call being the same, while I'm using google translate to help me better learn vocabularly, google translate translated read to קרוא although duolingo says קורא. Why is that?
When you are calling someone it's like you are opening a book. You can see it's emotions, particularities, personality...
Read and is reading is an English oddity, in Hebrew, as well as in many other languages just three tenses (Past, Present, Future) are quite enough, while in English a language of Latin and Germanic origins there about a couple of dozens of them