"Ki vagy te?"
Translation:Who are you?
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I find it really interesting that "ki" and "te" are very similar to their counterparts in romance languages (e.g., French: qui, tu/te; Italian: chi, tu/ti). Probably just a coincidence, but still cool
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Also to the numbers: Dutch:1=één --- én Twee - te I've already wondered whether the pronouns might be derived from numbers and whether there is some ancient connection between the Indo-European Languages and the Finno-Ugric ones
Also note that in many of both the first person (either plural or singular) pronoun starts with m, like a form to say 1 in Greek (μία/mia). Finnish we-me Persian I-man Not to speak about verb conjugations which often happen to have an m in de first person I know - ja znaM(pl) We are - Mes esaMe(lt) soM(ct)
Another prevalent form of the first person pronoun is jag (north-germanic and slavic) Guess how to say one in Persian:yeg
Even the slavic 1 jeden looks like this
3 in Persian:sah:sounds like she, su(spanish),sin(swedish),swój/свой(slavic)
And even how 3 sounds in Chinese is remarkable (三/san)
But well,maybe it's just me who is crazy and sees these things but I really think that there might be some deeper connections between languages than just Indo-European
Btw:Feel free to downvote my comment if you think it's weird or socially unacceptable
I just had to write down my (perhaps false) observation
Have a nice day
Your comment is great, only svoj in Slavic laguages is not 3d person, it can be used with any person-form.
Also there is correspondence between the Latin word for sea, 'mare' and the Japanese word, 'maru'. As far as we know the Romans and the Japanese were totally unaware of each other's existence..
I would guess that the correspondence between 'qui' and 'ki' is purely coincidental but that that between 'tu' and 'te' shows influence of one language over the other or, more probably, Latin over both.
Both 'who' and 'you' are common words and so have a higher probability of being monosyllabic rather than bi- or multisyllabic. Hence, there would be a not insignificant chance of correspondence.
In that case the "tu" came from the Hungarian "te" as it has been traced back several thousand years ie before the Magyars arrived in present day Hungary. More likely it is just co-incidence.
"Ön" is the formal way. You say this when you speak some adult you don't know. (Önök - plural)
"Te" is the informal, and you say this when you speak to children or your friends. (Ti - plural)
And I'd add with ön and önök you use the appropriate third person conjugation.
Would "Ki vagy" be correct? I mean, you can infer "you" from the inflection of "vagy". So is "te" necessary?
I found the formal version of this sentence earlier as "Ki ön?", without the verb to be. Does that mean that ön and önök are conjugated in the third person in Hungarian?
To me it (in the write what you hear version of this question) sounded like "Ki va te". Isn't the "gy" sound typically pretty distinct in Hungarian? Is it silent in cases ever, or is that just (hopefully) something the crazy English language does?
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When I listen to this I definitely hear a consonant after the 'va-' To me it sounds a bit like English 'd' but not quite. There are other sound bites in this module where I hear the 'gy' more clearly, but it is here, I do believe.
When gy depalatalizes it becomes d. With devoicing, either ty or t. So it's something like vaty- te (ty is unreleased; it doesn't sound like tj) or vat- te.
I figure I should just say it by ear.
I almost can't hear the G sound on the word 'vagy'? Do I have to pronounce it when saying the word?
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There is no "g"sound in "gy"! In Hungarian, the combination"gy" is a digraph that represents a single sound. It sounds similar to the "dy" sound that you would make saying English "during".
Please take a minute to review the Hungarian alphabet. You will see that "gy" is a "letter" on its own!