Why is "Today is a beautiful day"not good? And where does the "We have" come from?
Hungarian doesn't have the verb "to have", but express it with "van" + object with some pronoun ending. For example:
- Van macskám = "I have a cat" or, literally, "There's a cat-my"
There is "van" and the object ("macska") with an ending (-m is for "I"; -d is for "you", etc.) and a linking vowel that can change depending on the noun. So, in the sentence above:
- Szép napunk van ma = maybe "there's a beautiful day-us today"
There's the "van" and "nap" with the personal ending for "we" (-nk/-unk/-ünk…)
I think that "Today is a beautiful day" translates to "Ma (egy) szép nap" but I'm not sure.
I find the "-unk" construction to be convenient to think of as "of ours". (This is one completely legitimate translation of it.) So "szép napunk van ma" would translate through this lens as "It is a nice day of ours today."
Similarly with the "-om" and other forms of the possessive.
Nu not quite, because the verb is van, 3rd person, 'it is'. So it says more something like 'it is our beautiful day today'
"nap" is day, napunk is "our day". If you want to learn more about how possession works in Hungarian take a look at this link: http://www.hungarianreference.com/Possession/SingleObjects.aspx
We have a saying in English "Beautiful day we're (we are) having" maybe it's like that?
It is not impossible but very unusual to say it is a pretty day. Nice or beautiful far better
I've been known to exclaim, "What a pretty/lovely/gorgeous day," using any one of those descriptives.
Ok, the correct translation here is better than the one it was giving me...it told me "We've a nice day today." was the right reponse.
But that could be used as well. English and many other languages are not limited in the variety of their expressions as long as the grammar is correct.
Why "napunk" is not reflected in the accepted translation? IMHO it shall be something like "we have a..." or "it's a ... day for us"