One of the suggested solutions is "I am waiting a lot", but wouldn't that be "Én sok várok" ? If not, why? (It just doesn't seem accusative, to me.)
What am I waiting for? A lot. Mit várok? Sokat. So the object is the "sok" -> sokat.
So the translation should be "I am waiting FOR a lot." "I am waiting a lot" means that you are waiting often, or for a long time.
Sokat várok = I am waiting often or for a long time. So for what I am waiting for? This is accusativ in Hungarian, belive me :)
*edited: I wait often (eg. I wait for you every day in font of the school) means sokszor várok. Sokszor: many times *
Then maybe one of the alternate translations was wrong. Is there any difference in Hungarian between "I am waiting for a lot" and "I am waiting a lot"? In the first "a lot", it is a noun, and in the second it is an adverb.
Indeed, there are two different meanings. These different meanings can be expressed by the same Hungarian sentence, depending on the context, and both Hungarian sentences required accusative. See below for an explanation.
I wait a lot - I wait a long time because the flight is delayed
I wait for a lot - I expect, my expectations are high
And back to the original question, why "sokat", instead of "sok".
It should be applied many times different grammatical case/phrasal verb/preposition in the English and the Hungarian language.
In the Hungarian language, nouns, pronouns, adjectives, verbs (yes verbs, too) and their affixes (suffixes) take different inflected forms depending on what case they are in. The accusative of inflective languages (as the Hungarian) is one of the grammatical cases what answered that "whom?" or "what?"question; that is to say a word or phrase expresses the structure that fills the role of the object in a sentence.
Languages such as Hungarian have extensive case systems, with nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and determiners all inflecting (usually by means of different suffixes) to indicate their case. The Hungarian has eighteen grammatical cases. A role that one of these languages marks by case will often be marked in English using a preposition. The English prepositional phrase "for" might be rendered in Hungarian using the accusative case, such as in the above sentence.
I am also confused by this. In english these two have very different meanings
This is an adverb in English, but in Hungarian accusative, since it answers the "mennyit?" question. (Mennyi? means how many) The Hungarian has the question "how many?" in accusative as well: mennyit? Mennyit várok? Sokat. As I explained, it should be applied many times different grammatical case/phrasal verb/preposition in the English and different in the Hungarian language. The accusative case long ago exsisted in all Indo-European languages, but eg. from English it essentially disappeared. The English preserved it only the "whom?" interrogative word and some personal pronoun. I think that is why it is so hard to understand why many word requires the accusative in other languages when they don't required in English.
Sometimes things are used as adverbs in some languages and as nouns in others, and we have to accept it ;) For example, the way we express speaking a language: HU 'magyarul beszél (adverb)', DE 'Deutsch sprechen' (noun) / 'deutsch sprechen' (adverb), FR 'parler français (adverb) / parler le français (noun)'.
When it comes to time words (and other) being declined in the accusative, I saw it described as 'adverbial accusative'.
No one was questioning why sok is in accusative, when it has the meaning "I wait for a lot". It is obviously a noun in the accusative case here. The question was why it is like in the accusative case when it acts like an adverb in "I wait a lot".
I believe that both are valid depending on context. when using the accusative case with varni it often applies to time, but can be used for expectation at well.
Sokat varok I'm waiting for a lot (expectation) I am waiting a lot (time)
Take these two examples from a magyar angol szotar (dictionary)
1) 20 percet vartunk a buszra - we waited twenty minutes for the bus
Here the accusative case is on the ammount of time, and the expectation uses the "-ra/re" (onto)
2) varok valakit a repeloteren - I am waiting for someone at the airport.
Here the accusative case is use for the expectation of someone. rather than a time amount.
A better question might be what question would prompt each response. Adda's response clearly states the expectation response, (Waiting for a lot) but I can't think of a good example for time at the moment. I would love to hear others insights.
Yeah, I thought that might be how meddig would be :/ Not what I meant though.
What I meant was:
How much do I wait? I wait a lot.
Here, "a lot" is an adverb.
That's not the usage I'm talking about. I COMPLETELY understand why it is accusative when used in that case:
Mennyit várok? Sokat.
What I'm confused about is this:
Meddig várok? Sokat.
Cool, thanks. That would also be "I wait a lot", as in "I wait for him a lot" (often, many times). Thanks!
So what would just "sok" mean? Is it like "a large frequency of occurrences" or something?
Sok means many, much or a lot.
Sok ember van itt: a lot of people here Sok minden: a lot of things
Sok feladat: many tasks Sok jó tulajdonsága van: he has many good qualities
Sok helyet foglal el: take up much room Sok hűhó semmiért: much cry and little wool (phrase)
How would one say I am waiting a lot for a car vs I am waiting for a lot of cars.
En sokat autot varok? and what?
I believe it would be :
I am waiting a lot for a car : Sokat varok egy autora (here the quantity a lot is the object, so it gets the accusative t, and in hungarian you use the suffix -ra,-re with the verb varni to wait for something for an amount of time)
I am waiting for a lot of cars: sok autot varok. (Here sok is being used as an adjective not the subject, so it doesn't need an accusative t. Here I'm not sure which would be more proper, sok autot varok or sok autora varok. My dictionary seems to place either as acceptable.
Can this mean something like "I have high expectations" "I'm expecting a lot", or would that be completely different?
It does and it's generally used more for high expectations rather than just waiting, which would be I've waitED for a long time ("En sokat varatam,") but even that could be used in the context of expectations
There's no time frequency indicated in the sentence, just that "I wait a lot." What you are waiting for isn't mentioned, so you could be waiting for something not just for a long time. You also be saying that you have high expectations (which is the same phrase,) in which case the "for a long time," would be completely misplaced. Hope that helps :)