"The beverage has a bad taste."

Translation:למשקה יש טעם רע.

July 3, 2016

This discussion is locked.


Is word order here important, or would you also be able to say: ".יש טעם רע למשקה"? - "There is a bad taste to the beverage."


Did you get a response to this? What about יש טעם רע במשקה ...?


Why is יש למשקה incorrect? Is that word order only allowed when you're using a pronoun, eg יש לי?


It is fine to write " יש למשקה" I reported it a while back and it is allowed now. :)


I have the same question, so I'm going to report it.


Why is it spelled טעם and not טעים? Are there certain cases where there shouldn't be a 'י'?


taste = טעם (ta'am), tasty = טעים (ta'im)


This isn't טעים (ta'im - tasty), this is טעם (ta'am - taste).


Oh that makes sense


Is there a general rule for these conversions? Taste - tasty, salt - salty, etc?


As for salt, salty:

Salt is mélakh מלח and salty is מלוח malúakh. This is another pattern and refers to something which has received an action, e.g. פתוח patúakh is something that has been opened, so it is the adjective “open”. מלוח is (theoretically) something which has had salt added to it but it’s used even for things that are naturally salty.


This particular word is part of a set called the katil pattern. Please see https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/Appendix:Hebrew_patterns/קָט%D6%B4יל

However, these are quite specific and completely new adjectives according to this pattern are only possible with the second meaning listed there, that of “-able”. E.g. חפיש khafís searchable, a very recent addition to the language, is from חיפוש khipús search (noun) or לחפש lekhapés to search (verb).

In general, adjectives are formed by adding י to the end: שימוש shimúsh use (noun), שימושי shimushí useful.

This way of forming adjectives is very productive, and I could therefore invent חיפושי khipusí, “search-related”, and it would be understood readily.


la-mashké yesh tá'am ra.

[deactivated user]

    Why is a lamed in front of beverage instead of a hay?


    My understanding is because of the word 'has.' In Hebrew, there's no direct translation for to have, so you'd have to say "there is to me/him/her/etc." In this example, the literal translation would be "To the beverage there is a bad taste," just like how יש לי משקה would literally translate to "There is to me a beverage." In both cases, the -ל prefix means 'to.' I believe beginning with the ה would mean "The beverage there is a bad taste," which doesn't make sense, because יש doesn't really translate to have/has, it's more like 'there is.' Hopefully that makes sense!

    [deactivated user]

      בסדר, תודה רבה


      Is יש טעם רע למשקה wrong and does the words' order matter?


      Can someone also explain the difference between גרוע and רעה.


      Is יש obligatory in this context? I'm thinking along the lines of "To the wine is a bad taste" and "To the wine there is a bad taste". Wouldn't either make sense depending on which copula you want to use?


      I wrote שתייה instead of משקה which should definitely have been accepted. Both are perfectly fine ways to say a drink and it's impossible to know which one they want


      Morfix shows the primary meaning of שתייה as a drink/gulp of a משקה, rather than the beverage itself; it shows beverage as a secondary meaning. Can anyone advise if that distinction is too formal for us to worry about?

      b109 rich739183


      The word שתייה is the verbal noun (like gerund in English) of לשתות, so the basic meaning is actually "drinking", as in action you do when you consume liquids. The meaning "beverage" is only a derived meaning, which looks like is gaining ground on משקה. Now that I think about it, I have a theory that this is the case because in several Slavic languages (which have influenced Hebrew heavily), there are also two words that parallel these two Hebrew words - one is a verbal noun and the other is a regular word for a beverage. Nowadays, it is more common to hear the verbal noun to refer to a drink than the actual word for beverage, because often times it appears to be more formal, even though it isn't. It's just a trend I've noticed around me. Maybe it's also what happened in Hebrew or maybe it's just a coincidence.


      משקה \משקאות is masculine? If not Why isn't it raah, instead of rah? If it is feminine why is it רעה , & why does it have a feminine ending in singular and plural? Thanks.


      Because bad is referring to taste (טעם), which is masculine. A bad drink would be "משקה רעה"


      Not quite. משקה is also masculine, so "bad drink" would be משקה רע.

      A tip. If a noun ends in ה but has an "e" sound in the end, like "mashke", it is masculine. Other examples: קפה "kafe" - coffee, אריה "arye" - lion, הורה "hore" - parent, מורה "more" - teacher, מבנה "mivne" - structure, שדה "sade" - field, and so on. All of those nous are masculine.


      Thanks for your very quick and helpful responses! It's confusing to know which words don't change forms! I would think taste would to describe something like tasty or even colors do (have gender/plurals), but is there a class of words that don't?


      I was under the impression that רע referred to a sort-of moral badness and גרוע meant poor in quality. Why was גרוע not accepted for me?


      I think this is just more idiomatic טעם רע. I've seen also טעם גרוע in the sense of "poor taste". So, maybe a bit weaker in meaning?


      Kind of confusing. Shouldn't the first word be המשקה not למשקה?


      He explains at the beginning of this discussion


      What about שתיה?


      במשקה שלי הטעם רע , would this work?


      That would mean "in my beverage there is a bad taste." -ב typically means in, and שלי is 'to me' or mine. Similar, but slightly different than "the beverage has a bad taste"


      זאת משקה עם טעם רע. .. or this? Is there a grammar order to follow? Thanks!


      The way you wrote it here would mean "This is a beverage with a bad taste." Again, it's a similar sentiment, but slightly different than "The beverage has a bad taste." If you wanted to say "This beverage has a bad taste," you could say "״למשקה הזאת יש טעם רע


      I wrote טעם של המשקה רע and it is considered wrong. Why?


      It doesn't match the sentence used. See the questions I asked above and the answers given. (Sorry I'm in the app I don't know how old your question is, but I did ask similar questions. They now have answers).


      What your sentence says is "the taste of the drink is bad". Although that sentence is essentially the same, it is not an actual translation of the given sentence.


      And what about למשקה יש טעם רע?


      What exactly are you asking? Because that is the answer.

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