"They don't have good wine."
Translation:אין להם יין טוב.
Why isn't "אין להן" accepted as a valid solution? (I understand someone posed the same question in Hebrew here below, but I can't understand the answer yet.)
He wrote that it should be correct and he is going to report it (im pretty sure)
I am with you and with the first comment. I would love to know what the answer was to that first question in Hebrew. The question is not a problem though.. Thanks to all.
We can change the order from יש להם to להם יש, but we can't do the same with אין?
I think within the lesson they're looking for specific verbiage - "good" not "tasty." Even though one adjective implies the other in conversation.
Why is להן a typo? The sentence doesn't specify male or female?????