Why is it he chalav and not ha chalav? Is it a special rule because the noun starts with ח?Thanks (:
Yes, if the first vowel of the word is an a, the definite article ha is transformed to he
Note that in everyday spoken Hebrew it's simply (h)a all the time. This rule is for people who want to speak "proper" like newsreaders on the radio.
This is not completely true. The rule is as follows: the article will change pronunciation to הֶ when it is preceded by חָ, הָ, or עָ.
I think that it's mostly a matter of what the animal is used to. When we adopted our dog (already an adult), she drank milk too: every morning at 4:00. We weaned her off of that habit (both the milk —our vet also said that it's bad for her— and the 4 am feeding).
This is first discussed in the notes associated with the "Direct Object" module. You probably know by now, as I am answering 4 mo after the question. אֵת, pronounced "et" is the completely indispensable signpost that the direct object which is coming is definite--that is "the milk" and not "milk". it is called a "definite direct object marker". It has no actual translation, but in more advanced sentence structure where it is placed a bit differently can be loosely translated as "the" You will not encounter that for a long while. It seems utterly foreign to the English learner, but your ear will begin to appreciate it over time, and using it will become natural. Example: אני אוכל לחם (I am eating bread) vs אני אוכל אֵת הלחם (I am eating THE bread). without nikud it is spelled the same as feminine "you", which is of course pronounced aht. the difference when nikud are added changes the pronunciation to "et". so it is אֵת vs אַת. How would you know if there are no nikud? By context--and eventually it will come to be completely natural. Tricky? yes, but if you wanted easy you would be studying esperanto