Why does this use definite conjugation? Can someone explain when to use definite/indefinite other than the obvious case when the object is definite(egy)/indefinite(a,az)
'Költözöm' is the correct, but a lot of people would say 'költözök', so don't worry about that. I don't know, that you've ever heard of '-ik verbs' but maybe Wiki can help you: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hungarian_verbs#-ik_verbs
It's a bit long, but I'm afraid, I couldn't explain it properly.
I think "költözök" "is" the "correct" one because it's an -ik word, isn't? "költözöm" would imply an object. Anyway: Both are fine. There are verbs that are supposed to end in -m but but people say it with -k because the -m version sounds pretentious and there are also verbs that should end in -k but people say it with -m because it sounds nicer, softer. The problem is grammar books are written by gramma nazis who refuse to follow the natural change of the language.
Why do you say this is the definite conjugation? It is not. The -m ending is used because this is an -ik verb. Please correct me if I'm wrong.
I don't know if TakizawaHideaki is still around, but I just want to comment that he/she has it backwards: a/az is definite and egy (among other words that don't specify particular objects, along with no article or quantity modifier) is indefinite.
-ik verbs take the -om/-em endings in first person singular, period. It is one of the rules. Delre means towards the south, nothing fancy there, just moving in a southerly direction.
Are there any exceptions? Because I bumped into -ik verbs that end with -kok in 1st sg.
Does délra here mean "to the (capital-S) South" (like the American South) or just "to the south"?
It seems like it shouldn't be capitalized. I'm reading "to the south" to mean "southward." Not a place name.
Should be just "I am moving south" - no capital and without "to". The only time I can think you'd use a "the" in English is something like an abbreviation for the American South
I will never profess to be an expert in the Hungarian language. I will be lucky if, on my deathbed, I would be 75% fluent. So, I would imagine that there are exceptions, but by and large, most -ik verbs take on the -om, -em, -om (with the dots) endings in first person singular. My mother-in-law, who happens to be Hungarian remarked to me that even her highly educated children would not always conjugate these tricky -ik verbs correctly. So, I took special note of this. Actually, I live in South Korea. I hope to retire in Hungary and plop myself down in the thermal waters on a daily basis, until I am fluent in Hungarian, dead, or both :)