So when the object pronoun is missing, the assumption is that it's the speaker ("nekem")? And why dative? Is there (or could there be) an object in the accusative as well?
For those of you who speak or have studied Spanish, is tetszik similar to gustar? ("He/she/it/etc pleases me")?
Although I wouldn't go as far as to say that "pleases" is a perfect alternative to "tetszik" but yeah, the idea is the same, that's how the Hungarian expression works too. Actually, come to think of it, it can also depend on the context like:
- Nem tetszik. (nekem is missing because it's implied)
- Miért nem tetszik? (neked is missing because it refers back to the previous sentence so it is understood)
I am in section 4 and going back to this module because it was cracked. This is the first time I have ever used ezeket (I obviously know the article rules by now), but I can see where this can throw off a new user. There needs to be something on this in the Tips section.