"Early in the morning and late in the evening."
Translation:Wcześnie rano i późno wieczorem.
what is the difference between the "z" with a dot and the "z" with a line on top?
Ź and Ż represent completely different sounds (/ʑ/ and /ʐ/ respectively). Unfortunately, neither of them is present in English. If you are not familiar with them you should check out some resources on phonetics.
I disagree. If you say "pleż'r," you're saying it with a foreign accent. Vision, pleasure, and measure, make a much more similar sound to Ź than to Ż. English doesn't really have a retroflex voiced fricative Ż, although it's similar. Wikipedia gives an example of "mirage" for Ż, but I plainly hear Ź in mirage. It also gives "pleasure" as an example of the English voiced postalveolar fricative "zh", and that's closer to the Polish voiced alveolo-palatal fricative Ź than the Polish voiced retroflex fricative Ż.
I must admit it's quite a good approximation but not always. That's why I didn't think about it.
It's an adverb. It could be expressed by a noun in instrumental, then it would be "Wczesnym rankiem".
I see I guess "rano" is like "morgens" in German and "ranko" is "Der Morgen"?
"ranek" is "Der Morgen". "ranko" is not a word :) Although I can perfectly understand how you arrived at it.
Could anyone explain why instrumental would work here please? I don't think I've come across this before :)
Because they're instrumental in answering the question "when"? Late when? Late in the evening.
Nice answer, but actually "wieczorem" is just an adverb that happens to be identical to the Instrumental form of the noun ;)
It is treated as such, but its origin is indeed the instrumental case. Otherwise forms like nocą, rankiem... would be an extraordinary coincidence :)
@edB4zK: Wczesnym rankiem means the same thing, but it sounds a little bit more poetic and old-fashioned.
So, are these phrases interchangeable?
Or does each work a different situation?