"Early in the morning and late in the evening."
Translation:Wcześnie rano i późno wieczorem.
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what is the difference between the "z" with a dot and the "z" with a line on top?
Ź and Ż represent completely different sounds (/ʑ/ and /ʐ/ respectively). Unfortunately, neither of them is present in English. If you are not familiar with them you should check out some resources on phonetics.
Well, Ż is used in words like 'vision'. Anyway, I'd recommend checking here.
I must admit it's quite a good approximation but not always. That's why I didn't think about it.
I disagree. If you say "pleż'r," you're saying it with a foreign accent. Vision, pleasure, and measure, make a much more similar sound to Ź than to Ż. English doesn't really have a retroflex voiced fricative Ż, although it's similar. Wikipedia gives an example of "mirage" for Ż, but I plainly hear Ź in mirage. It also gives "pleasure" as an example of the English voiced postalveolar fricative "zh", and that's closer to the Polish voiced alveolo-palatal fricative Ź than the Polish voiced retroflex fricative Ż.
Why 'i' and not 'a', since they seem to be opposites? (maybe 'a' is accepted, I haven't tested)
They're not really opposite because that's just listing two times of the day. It's the same level of opposition as "a man and a woman", without some sentence there's no contrast, just two nouns.
If here we had "Early in the morning I do X and late in the evening I do Y", then yes, that's contrast and we would use "a".
It's an adverb. It could be expressed by a noun in instrumental, then it would be "Wczesnym rankiem".
Could anyone explain why instrumental would work here please? I don't think I've come across this before :)
I see I guess "rano" is like "morgens" in German and "ranko" is "Der Morgen"?
"ranek" is "Der Morgen". "ranko" is not a word :) Although I can perfectly understand how you arrived at it.