So when do you use שייך versus שייכת? The only difference I see is שייכת was used with a name or one person specifically. שייך is used without a name and references belong to multiple people, to us? Can someone please clarify usage and perhaps also add it to the word description in the course because this is very confusing. Is the difference in plural or singular?
singular, male - שייך
singular female - שייכת
plural male - שייכים
plural female - שייכות
In this example, הדג is singular male ==> שייך
Thanks so much! So in this case you match the gender of the object and not the person it belongs too, correct?
And how would i go about reporting this issue since its not at all specified in the course itself? Each time these came up I was lost.
Yes, it depends on the object - it's similar to the English sentence, the fish is the subject of the sentence.
Gal, you are our Wonder Woman. I didn't understand this forever, thank you!
In English the sentences The fish is ours and the fish belongs to us have the exact same meaning.
Well, the meaning is the same, yet those are two different ways of saying it. So, I am glad that Duo is teaching us different ways of expressing the same concept in Hebrew as well.
Actually not exactly the same. The posessive pronoun ("our" etc.), like the preposition "of", can mean many different relations, not only ownership. In the case of fish it's hard to imagine other possibilities, but here are two:
A fairy tale where fish can talk and have family relations. Father fish and mother fish say to uncle octopus about their child "the fish is ours".
A cooking competition! The referres, who have tasted the dishes without knowing who made which, have just announced "the winning dishes are the fish and the caulliflower. Will the proud cooks step forward?". Two excited girls step forward, and declare "the fish is ours!"
In both cases, you wouldn't use "belong". So I agree that where you say "the fish belongs to us" you can always* say "the fish is ours", but belongs is more specific. Same in Hebrew.
- Actually... this is far fetched, but imagine in this cooking contest, the two girls say angrily "the fish is not just ours, it belongs to us! We didn't intend to give it for the competion at all!"
both sentence mean the same but what he did is free translation. and i guess you want to understand the word perticulary
Why won't this type of question accept "this fish is ours"? Is it because the translation is not literal?
"this fish" and "the fish" are not the same. In Hebrew, "this fish is ours" = הדג הזה שייך לנו.
It can be. I think on Duolingo "belongs to" is translated to -שייך ל and possessive pronouns like "ours" are translated to של. I'm not sure though. The meaning is similar, anyway.