"Az angol férfi egy zenész."

Translation:The English man is a musician.

July 7, 2016

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When is "egy" necessary? Why can I not say "Az angol férfi zenész."?


Wow, this is a difficult question even for a native speaker! :D First of all: you can say "Az angol férfi zenész". It wouldn't be correct from the other way, "the English man is musician" sounds a bit lame without further context.

There is a very faint difference in meaning. Without the indefinite article the occupation has less stress on it. "Az angol férfi egy zenész, nem ért az autókhoz" could convey the speaker's general opinion that musicians know nothing about cars. "Az angol férfi zenész, nem ért az autókhoz" has the more definite message that the speaker doesn't speak in general terms, but has the opinion that this certain musician knows nothing about cars. I think this difference is present in the English, too, but I am not really sure. I am just a human, after all ;) (Sorry, I just love Rag 'n' Bone Man's song.)


Why not Englishman? I reported it but perhaps I am wrong.


Because it is two different word, here English is the adjective of the noun "man". So the sentence could use "magyar férfi" too what would not be "Hungarianman", you know. I hope I did not write anything silly >.< But in English Englishman sounds better, doesn't it? So I think it too that is could be ok.


I understood the concept, but I've learnt (back in the 80s) that while an American male is an American man, a French one is a French man, the English one is an Englishman. Even if the English woman is still and English woman. Perhaps it has been changed in the past 30+ years, as many other things had, but I don't know about it...


In English, Frenchman is actually a pretty normal thing to say, (if a bit antiquated). I'm not sure the exact rule for when you do it, but i think it might be if it ends in a "sh" "s" or "ch" sound. Dutchman also works, for instance, as does Scotsman.


drewballen: indeed, I later discovered my mistake: Frenchman, Scotsman, Dutchman and some other "-man" is okay to be written in one word. I don't know about the rule. I even saw "Ulsterman" in a motor racing article. (Perhaps on John Watson but he is from Belfast, isn't he?)


Thanks that you wrote this, now I see it as you. In this case it could be Englishman, I think too o.o


I think "Englishman" has been valid for "angol férfi" in the past

  • 1534

And in 1941 the Hungarian Zoltán Kodály said, “Legyen a zene mindenkié.”


Is 'angol' specifically English rather than British?


Yes, when we talk about a British person/thing we say 'brit'.


Why not A angol...?

  • 1534

Because nouns that start with a vowel are preceded by "az." Only nouns that start with consonants are preceded by "a." For example:

a busz (the bus)

a lámpa (the lamp)

az alma (the apple)

az áruház (the department store)


Agree! Nevertheless this difference is present in English, too. Just think of "a car", "a politician", "an apple", "an instrument", "a union" (note the pronounciation!), "an honour" (again!). When you say something with consonant first, you'll use "a" for the indefinite article, but otherwise you use "an". In Hungarian it happens to the definite article and it takes "z" instead of "n" but the concept is the same. :D

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